Nr341 Pharmacology cje benchmark Test Bank, ALL Topics
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1. Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of beta blockers?
A. They block calcium channels to reduce myocardial contractility.
B. They block beta-adrenergic receptors, decreasing heart rate and contractility.
C. They inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing vasoconstriction.
D. They increase sodium excretion by blocking reabsorption in the loop of Henle.
Correct Answer: B. They block beta-adrenergic receptors, decreasing heart rate and
contractility.
Rationale: Beta blockers (e.g., metoprolol, propranolol) act as beta-adrenergic antagonists,
preventing epinephrine and norepinephrine from binding to β1 receptors in the heart. This lowers
heart rate, myocardial contractility, and blood pressure, reducing cardiac workload.
2. What is the primary mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril?
A. Block angiotensin II receptors, preventing vasoconstriction.
B. Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, promoting vasodilation.
C. Decrease cardiac output by slowing AV node conduction.
D. Increase calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle.
Correct Answer: B. Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, promoting
vasodilation.
Rationale: ACE inhibitors block the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a
powerful vasoconstrictor. This results in vasodilation, decreased blood pressure, and reduced
aldosterone secretion. Adverse effects include cough, hyperkalemia, and angioedema.
3. Which of the following describes how loop diuretics like furosemide act in the nephron?
A. Increase sodium and water reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
B. Inhibit sodium, chloride, and water reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle.
C. Enhance potassium reabsorption in the distal tubule.
D. Block aldosterone at receptor sites in the collecting duct.
Correct Answer: B. Inhibit sodium, chloride, and water reabsorption in the ascending
loop of Henle.
,Rationale: Loop diuretics inhibit the Na⁺-K⁺-2Cl⁻ symporter, causing significant diuresis and
loss of electrolytes, especially potassium. They are potent agents used for edema and heart
failure but require monitoring for dehydration and hypokalemia.
4. Which mechanism of action best describes calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine?
A. Block calcium entry into cardiac and smooth muscle cells, causing vasodilation and
decreased contractility.
B. Stimulate calcium channels to enhance myocardial contraction.
C. Increase sodium excretion in the renal tubules.
D. Stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors causing vasoconstriction.
Correct Answer: A. Block calcium entry into cardiac and smooth muscle cells, causing
vasodilation and decreased contractility.
Rationale: Calcium channel blockers prevent calcium influx, reducing vascular resistance and
myocardial oxygen demand. They treat hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. Adverse effects
may include hypotension, bradycardia, and peripheral edema.
5. An agonist drug is best described as one that:
A. Binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a physiological response.
B. Binds to a receptor and blocks it from being activated.
C. Decreases receptor number on the cell surface.
D. Prevents neurotransmitter synthesis.
Correct Answer: A. Binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a physiological
response.
Rationale: Agonists mimic endogenous molecules by binding to receptors and triggering the
same physiological response. For instance, albuterol is a β2 agonist that promotes
bronchodilation in the lungs.
6. What differentiates an antagonist from an agonist?
A. Antagonists increase receptor sensitivity to neurotransmitters.
B. Antagonists enhance receptor activation.
C. Antagonists bind to receptors but do not activate them, blocking agonist effects.
D. Antagonists produce a stronger response than natural ligands.
Correct Answer: C. Antagonists bind to receptors but do not activate them, blocking
agonist effects.
Rationale: Antagonists occupy receptor sites and prevent activation by endogenous ligands or
drugs. For example, propranolol blocks β-adrenergic receptors, reducing sympathetic nervous
system effects.
7. The dose-response relationship in pharmacology is best described as:
A. The correlation between the amount of drug given and the magnitude of its effect.
B. The comparison between two drugs in the same class.
C. The onset time of a medication’s action.
D. The process by which a drug is metabolized and excreted.
Correct Answer: A. The correlation between the amount of drug given and the
magnitude of its effect.
Rationale: The dose-response curve demonstrates that increasing a drug dose enhances its effect
,up to a limit (the ceiling effect). Beyond this point, no further therapeutic benefit occurs, only
increased risk of toxicity.
8. Which best explains receptor selectivity in pharmacology?
A. The drug binds to all available receptors in the body.
B. The drug’s ability to bind preferentially to a specific receptor subtype.
C. The speed at which the drug is excreted.
D. The strength of the drug’s plasma binding.
Correct Answer: B. The drug’s ability to bind preferentially to a specific receptor
subtype.
Rationale: Selectivity refers to a drug’s ability to target specific receptor types. For instance,
metoprolol selectively blocks β1 receptors in the heart, minimizing bronchoconstriction risk
compared to non-selective blockers like propranolol.
9. A nurse explains that partial agonists produce what kind of effect?
A. No effect at all.
B. A weaker response than a full agonist, even with full receptor occupancy.
C. The same maximal response as a full agonist.
D. Complete receptor blockade.
Correct Answer: B. A weaker response than a full agonist, even with full receptor
occupancy.
Rationale: Partial agonists activate receptors but to a limited extent. Buprenorphine, a partial
opioid agonist, activates receptors enough to prevent withdrawal but not to cause full respiratory
depression, making it useful in addiction therapy.
10. Which of the following terms describes the maximum effect a drug can produce regardless
of dose?
A. Potency
B. Efficacy
C. Tolerance
D. Bioavailability
Correct Answer: B. Efficacy
Rationale: Efficacy reflects the ceiling of a drug’s therapeutic effect, while potency refers to
how much drug is needed to achieve a response. A highly potent drug requires a lower dose, but
efficacy determines the maximum achievable effect.
11. A nurse is reviewing the pharmacologic action of alpha-1 adrenergic blockers such as
doxazosin. Which of the following describes their mechanism of action?
A. Increase norepinephrine release from sympathetic nerves.
B. Stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction.
C. Block alpha-1 receptors, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
D. Activate beta-2 receptors to promote bronchodilation.
Correct Answer: C. Block alpha-1 receptors, leading to vasodilation and decreased
blood pressure.
Rationale: Alpha-1 adrenergic blockers inhibit sympathetic stimulation of vascular smooth
muscle, resulting in vasodilation, decreased peripheral resistance, and lower blood pressure.
, They are used in hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Orthostatic hypotension is a
common adverse effect.
12. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of angiotensin II receptor
blockers (ARBs) such as losartan?
A. Inhibit renin release from the kidneys.
B. Block angiotensin II receptors, preventing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion.
C. Inhibit the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
D. Block sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule.
Correct Answer: B. Block angiotensin II receptors, preventing vasoconstriction and
aldosterone secretion.
Rationale: ARBs selectively block binding of angiotensin II to its receptors on vascular smooth
muscle and adrenal tissue. This results in vasodilation and decreased fluid retention. Unlike ACE
inhibitors, ARBs do not typically cause a persistent cough.
13. Which of the following accurately describes the mechanism of thiazide diuretics like
hydrochlorothiazide?
A. Act in the proximal convoluted tubule to prevent sodium reabsorption.
B. Inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule.
C. Block aldosterone effects in the collecting duct.
D. Increase water reabsorption in the renal medulla.
Correct Answer: B. Inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted
tubule.
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics reduce plasma volume and blood pressure by promoting sodium
and water excretion. They are commonly used in hypertension management. Monitor for
hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and dehydration.
14. The nurse knows that potassium-sparing diuretics such as spironolactone act by:
A. Increasing sodium reabsorption in the loop of Henle.
B. Blocking aldosterone receptors in the distal nephron.
C. Enhancing potassium excretion.
D. Promoting water retention in the proximal tubule.
Correct Answer: B. Blocking aldosterone receptors in the distal nephron.
Rationale: Spironolactone antagonizes aldosterone, preventing sodium reabsorption and
potassium excretion. This leads to mild diuresis and potassium retention. Used in heart failure
and hypertension, it carries a risk of hyperkalemia and endocrine effects like gynecomastia.
15. Which statement best describes the action of nitrates such as nitroglycerin?
A. They convert to nitric oxide, causing vascular smooth muscle relaxation and
vasodilation.
B. They block calcium channels to decrease myocardial oxygen demand.
C. They inhibit platelet aggregation and thrombus formation.
D. They enhance sodium retention in vascular tissue.
Correct Answer: A. They convert to nitric oxide, causing vascular smooth muscle
relaxation and vasodilation.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin donates nitric oxide, which stimulates cyclic GMP production leading
fully Covered Latest versions
1. Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of beta blockers?
A. They block calcium channels to reduce myocardial contractility.
B. They block beta-adrenergic receptors, decreasing heart rate and contractility.
C. They inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing vasoconstriction.
D. They increase sodium excretion by blocking reabsorption in the loop of Henle.
Correct Answer: B. They block beta-adrenergic receptors, decreasing heart rate and
contractility.
Rationale: Beta blockers (e.g., metoprolol, propranolol) act as beta-adrenergic antagonists,
preventing epinephrine and norepinephrine from binding to β1 receptors in the heart. This lowers
heart rate, myocardial contractility, and blood pressure, reducing cardiac workload.
2. What is the primary mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril?
A. Block angiotensin II receptors, preventing vasoconstriction.
B. Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, promoting vasodilation.
C. Decrease cardiac output by slowing AV node conduction.
D. Increase calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle.
Correct Answer: B. Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, promoting
vasodilation.
Rationale: ACE inhibitors block the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a
powerful vasoconstrictor. This results in vasodilation, decreased blood pressure, and reduced
aldosterone secretion. Adverse effects include cough, hyperkalemia, and angioedema.
3. Which of the following describes how loop diuretics like furosemide act in the nephron?
A. Increase sodium and water reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
B. Inhibit sodium, chloride, and water reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle.
C. Enhance potassium reabsorption in the distal tubule.
D. Block aldosterone at receptor sites in the collecting duct.
Correct Answer: B. Inhibit sodium, chloride, and water reabsorption in the ascending
loop of Henle.
,Rationale: Loop diuretics inhibit the Na⁺-K⁺-2Cl⁻ symporter, causing significant diuresis and
loss of electrolytes, especially potassium. They are potent agents used for edema and heart
failure but require monitoring for dehydration and hypokalemia.
4. Which mechanism of action best describes calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine?
A. Block calcium entry into cardiac and smooth muscle cells, causing vasodilation and
decreased contractility.
B. Stimulate calcium channels to enhance myocardial contraction.
C. Increase sodium excretion in the renal tubules.
D. Stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors causing vasoconstriction.
Correct Answer: A. Block calcium entry into cardiac and smooth muscle cells, causing
vasodilation and decreased contractility.
Rationale: Calcium channel blockers prevent calcium influx, reducing vascular resistance and
myocardial oxygen demand. They treat hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. Adverse effects
may include hypotension, bradycardia, and peripheral edema.
5. An agonist drug is best described as one that:
A. Binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a physiological response.
B. Binds to a receptor and blocks it from being activated.
C. Decreases receptor number on the cell surface.
D. Prevents neurotransmitter synthesis.
Correct Answer: A. Binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a physiological
response.
Rationale: Agonists mimic endogenous molecules by binding to receptors and triggering the
same physiological response. For instance, albuterol is a β2 agonist that promotes
bronchodilation in the lungs.
6. What differentiates an antagonist from an agonist?
A. Antagonists increase receptor sensitivity to neurotransmitters.
B. Antagonists enhance receptor activation.
C. Antagonists bind to receptors but do not activate them, blocking agonist effects.
D. Antagonists produce a stronger response than natural ligands.
Correct Answer: C. Antagonists bind to receptors but do not activate them, blocking
agonist effects.
Rationale: Antagonists occupy receptor sites and prevent activation by endogenous ligands or
drugs. For example, propranolol blocks β-adrenergic receptors, reducing sympathetic nervous
system effects.
7. The dose-response relationship in pharmacology is best described as:
A. The correlation between the amount of drug given and the magnitude of its effect.
B. The comparison between two drugs in the same class.
C. The onset time of a medication’s action.
D. The process by which a drug is metabolized and excreted.
Correct Answer: A. The correlation between the amount of drug given and the
magnitude of its effect.
Rationale: The dose-response curve demonstrates that increasing a drug dose enhances its effect
,up to a limit (the ceiling effect). Beyond this point, no further therapeutic benefit occurs, only
increased risk of toxicity.
8. Which best explains receptor selectivity in pharmacology?
A. The drug binds to all available receptors in the body.
B. The drug’s ability to bind preferentially to a specific receptor subtype.
C. The speed at which the drug is excreted.
D. The strength of the drug’s plasma binding.
Correct Answer: B. The drug’s ability to bind preferentially to a specific receptor
subtype.
Rationale: Selectivity refers to a drug’s ability to target specific receptor types. For instance,
metoprolol selectively blocks β1 receptors in the heart, minimizing bronchoconstriction risk
compared to non-selective blockers like propranolol.
9. A nurse explains that partial agonists produce what kind of effect?
A. No effect at all.
B. A weaker response than a full agonist, even with full receptor occupancy.
C. The same maximal response as a full agonist.
D. Complete receptor blockade.
Correct Answer: B. A weaker response than a full agonist, even with full receptor
occupancy.
Rationale: Partial agonists activate receptors but to a limited extent. Buprenorphine, a partial
opioid agonist, activates receptors enough to prevent withdrawal but not to cause full respiratory
depression, making it useful in addiction therapy.
10. Which of the following terms describes the maximum effect a drug can produce regardless
of dose?
A. Potency
B. Efficacy
C. Tolerance
D. Bioavailability
Correct Answer: B. Efficacy
Rationale: Efficacy reflects the ceiling of a drug’s therapeutic effect, while potency refers to
how much drug is needed to achieve a response. A highly potent drug requires a lower dose, but
efficacy determines the maximum achievable effect.
11. A nurse is reviewing the pharmacologic action of alpha-1 adrenergic blockers such as
doxazosin. Which of the following describes their mechanism of action?
A. Increase norepinephrine release from sympathetic nerves.
B. Stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction.
C. Block alpha-1 receptors, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
D. Activate beta-2 receptors to promote bronchodilation.
Correct Answer: C. Block alpha-1 receptors, leading to vasodilation and decreased
blood pressure.
Rationale: Alpha-1 adrenergic blockers inhibit sympathetic stimulation of vascular smooth
muscle, resulting in vasodilation, decreased peripheral resistance, and lower blood pressure.
, They are used in hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Orthostatic hypotension is a
common adverse effect.
12. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of angiotensin II receptor
blockers (ARBs) such as losartan?
A. Inhibit renin release from the kidneys.
B. Block angiotensin II receptors, preventing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion.
C. Inhibit the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
D. Block sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule.
Correct Answer: B. Block angiotensin II receptors, preventing vasoconstriction and
aldosterone secretion.
Rationale: ARBs selectively block binding of angiotensin II to its receptors on vascular smooth
muscle and adrenal tissue. This results in vasodilation and decreased fluid retention. Unlike ACE
inhibitors, ARBs do not typically cause a persistent cough.
13. Which of the following accurately describes the mechanism of thiazide diuretics like
hydrochlorothiazide?
A. Act in the proximal convoluted tubule to prevent sodium reabsorption.
B. Inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule.
C. Block aldosterone effects in the collecting duct.
D. Increase water reabsorption in the renal medulla.
Correct Answer: B. Inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted
tubule.
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics reduce plasma volume and blood pressure by promoting sodium
and water excretion. They are commonly used in hypertension management. Monitor for
hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and dehydration.
14. The nurse knows that potassium-sparing diuretics such as spironolactone act by:
A. Increasing sodium reabsorption in the loop of Henle.
B. Blocking aldosterone receptors in the distal nephron.
C. Enhancing potassium excretion.
D. Promoting water retention in the proximal tubule.
Correct Answer: B. Blocking aldosterone receptors in the distal nephron.
Rationale: Spironolactone antagonizes aldosterone, preventing sodium reabsorption and
potassium excretion. This leads to mild diuresis and potassium retention. Used in heart failure
and hypertension, it carries a risk of hyperkalemia and endocrine effects like gynecomastia.
15. Which statement best describes the action of nitrates such as nitroglycerin?
A. They convert to nitric oxide, causing vascular smooth muscle relaxation and
vasodilation.
B. They block calcium channels to decrease myocardial oxygen demand.
C. They inhibit platelet aggregation and thrombus formation.
D. They enhance sodium retention in vascular tissue.
Correct Answer: A. They convert to nitric oxide, causing vascular smooth muscle
relaxation and vasodilation.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin donates nitric oxide, which stimulates cyclic GMP production leading
