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NACE PN to RN Exam 2025: Complete 180 Practice Questions with Verified Answers – Graded A+ Study Guide

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Prepare for the NACE PN to RN Exam with Confidence This comprehensive study guide includes: 180 practice questions Verified correct answers Detailed explanations Graded A+ Designed to mirror the latest 2025 exam format, this guide is ideal for professionals seeking to enhance their knowledge and pass the NACE PN to RN exam on the first attempt.

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October 4, 2025
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NACE PN to RN Exam 2025: Complete 180 Practice Questions with
Verified Answers – Graded A+ Study Guide

Content Structure
 Practice questions that reflect the actual exam
 Verified answers with detailed explanations
 Study materials aligned with the latest 2025 exam syllabus
 Resources graded A+ for quality assurance
 Guides that enhance understanding of nursing principles




NACE PN TO RN

The RN is preparing an intravenous infusion of phenytoin (Dilantin) as prescribed by the physician for
the client with seizures. Which of the following solutions will the nurse use to dilute this medication?

Normal saline (0.9%) solution. Phenytoin (Dilantin) should be administered by injection into a large vein
by intermittent intravenous infusion. Normal saline (0.9%) solution is the preferred solution. Dextrose
should be avoided because of medication precipitation.

Which of the following terms corresponds with the phrase: a woman that is pregnant?

Gravida
Gravida is another word for pregnancy. Spermatogonia refers to male sperm cells. Placenta previa is
when the placenta is too close to the cervix.

A healthy first time pregnant client asks the nurse, "How long will I stay in the hospital after my baby
is born." The client is scheduled for a Caesarean section. The nurse understands the average
timeframe for the hospital stay for a Caesarean section is what?

Correct Answer: 72 hours. The hospital stay for a healthy mother who has delivered an infant varies
depending on the type of delivery. The length of stay in the hospital for a vaginal birth is typically 24 to
48 hours. The length of stay in the hospital for a Caesarean section that does not have any complications
is 72 hours.

The community nurse is planning a smoking cessation program. What would be the first step in
developing a health promotion program?

Correct Answer: Conducting health risk surveys
First conduct initial assessments to determine if there is a health risk. Then follow the course of action in
place in this event.

A woman is two months pregnant when her five-year-old child develops rubella. What is most likely
to be given to the mother?

,Correct Answer: Immune serum globulin
Immune serum globulin gives her a passive immunity and helps keep her from developing rubella, which
can have devastating effect on her unborn child. MMR is a live virus and is not given to pregnant
women. RhoGam prevents anti Rh antibody development. There is no such thing as rubella antitoxin.

What is the normal value of urine potassium?

25-120 mEq/24 hr
The normal value for urine potassium is 25-120 mEq/24 hr

Before applying a cord clamp, the nurse assesses the umbilical cord for the presence of vessels. The
findings that are often associated with genitourinary abnormalities are what?

Correct Answer: one artery, one vein. Two arteries and one vein are present in a normal umbilical cord.
The presence of one artery in the umbilical cord is associated with genitourinary abnormalities.

You are assigned to educate the nursing assistants regarding caring for the older adult. It is important
that the assistants understand that which of the following situations portrays ageism?

The Correct answer is: Advising older adults to forgo aggressive treatment. Ageism is a form of prejudice
in which older adults are stereotyped by characteristics found in only a few members of their group.
Fundamental to ageism is the view that older persons are different from "me" and will remain different
from "me." Advising older adults to forgo (go without) aggressive treatment, when such a treatment
would be offered as a possibility to the general population, displays ageism by treating the older adults
as fundamentally different from the general population. The other answers identify supporting roles of
the nurse for the older person.

When taking a dietary history from a newly admitted client, the nurse should remember that which of
the following foods is a common allergen?

The correct answer is strawberries. Common food allergens include berries, peanuts, Brazil nuts,
cashews, shellfish, and eggs. Bread, carrots and oranges rarely cause allergic reactions.

A nurse who violates the civil rights of an individual may be committing what?

Correct answer: A tort. A tort is the process of violating civil law when dealing with an individual or an
individual's property. The types of torts are commission and omission. Further, negligence and
malpractice are not the best choices as these deal with unintentional torts.

A patient with Addison's disease has been given an inadequate steroid dosage. Which of the following
are NOT symptoms the patient could experience?

Correct Answer: Weight gain. Weight loss is more likely. Fatigue, weakness, and dizziness are often
indicated.

Which of the following behaviors does NOT show improvement in a client with Obsessive Compulsive
Disorder?

Correct answer: Client uses "will power" to stop rituals.
The client can employ appropriate intervention techniques and more about the disease process such as
B, C and D. "Will power" alone will not be effective in dealing with Obsessive Compulsive Disorder. The

, client can employ appropriate intervention techniques by refraining from rituals during times of stress,
using the "thought-stopping" strategy when experiencing obsessive thoughts, and verbalizing rituals and
stress relationships.

Of the following, which is the normal range of respiration rate, in breaths per minute, for an adult?

12-20
30-45 breaths per minute is the normal range for an 3-6 month old babies. 24-32 is normal for a toddler,
and 20-24 for a small child. The average breath rate drops with age and levels off during adolescence, to
approximately 12-20 breaths per minute.

Which of the following is the generic name for Nizoral?

Ketoconazole.
Isotretinoin is the generic name for Accutane. Nystatin is the generic name for Mycostatin and
Flucinonide, a generic name for Lidex.

Which of the following is not a goal for a client with social phobia?

Correct answer: Use suppression. A client needs concrete goals to pursue. These goals might include
managing fear in groups, verbalizing feelings in stressful situations, and developing a plan for stressful
situations. Suppression, or avoidance of thoughts and feelings, would be very counterproductive to a
person with social phobia.

A client has had pain in the right leg for 3 weeks. The nurse understands that the MOST LIKELY effect
of this pain is?

Correct Answer: The disruption of sleep. Pain can have many effects on the human body. Clients with
acute pain may have a decrease in appetite, decrease in fluid intake, nausea, vomiting and disruption in
sleep.

Which of the following is the sixth provision of the Code of Ethics for Nurses?

Correct Answer:
"The nurse participates in establishing, maintaining, and improving health care environments and
conditions of employment conducive to the provision of quality health care and consistent with the
values of the profession through individual and collective action."

Which of the following is a brand name for Rabeprazole?

Correct answer: Aciphex. Aciphex is a brand name for Rabeprazole. Carafate is a brand name for
Sucralfate and azulfidine for Sulfasalazine. Zantac is Ranitidine.

Which of the following is MOST likely a characteristic found with individuals who are diagnosed with
borderline personality disorder?

The correct answer is: identity disturbance. Individuals with borderline personality have an identity
disturbance where the individual has difficulty keeping a stable mood and self image. Characteristics of
personality disorders are unpredictable behavior, impulsiveness, and irritability. Timidness, social
discomfort and fear of negative feedback are not typical with borderline personality but are found in
individuals diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder.

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