EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM #2 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH 100% RATED 2025 LATEST
UPDATED 100% VERIFIED GET IT CORRECT!!!
Question 1
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, your first priority as an EMT is:
A) Assessing the most critically injured patient.
B) Calling for additional resources.
C) Ensuring scene safety.
D) Obtaining a detailed patient history.
E) Controlling severe bleeding.
Correct Answer: C) Ensuring scene safety.
Rationale: Scene safety is always the first priority in any emergency. You cannot effectively
help patients if you or your team become part of the incident.
Question 2
A 68-year-old male complains of sudden onset chest pain radiating to his left arm. He is
conscious and alert but appears anxious. His skin is pale, cool, and clammy. You should first:
A) Administer aspirin if not contraindicated.
B) Obtain a blood pressure.
C) Apply oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
D) Assist with prescribed nitroglycerin.
E) Transport immediately.
Correct Answer: C) Apply oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
Rationale: For a patient with suspected cardiac chest pain, providing supplemental oxygen is a
high priority to maximize oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While aspirin and nitroglycerin
are important, addressing oxygenation comes first in the immediate
airway/breathing/circulation assessment.
Question 3
Which of the following describes the correct order of assessment for a responsive medical
patient?
A) Scene size-up, primary assessment, history taking, secondary assessment, reassessment.
B) Primary assessment, history taking, scene size-up, secondary assessment, reassessment.
C) Scene size-up, secondary assessment, primary assessment, history taking, reassessment.
D) History taking, primary assessment, scene size-up, secondary assessment, reassessment.
E) Scene size-up, primary assessment, secondary assessment, history taking, reassessment.
Correct Answer: A) Scene size-up, primary assessment, history taking, secondary assessment,
reassessment.
Rationale: This sequence ensures that immediate life threats are addressed (primary
assessment), followed by gathering information (history taking), conducting a thorough
,physical exam (secondary assessment), and continuously monitoring the patient
(reassessment), all initiated by scene safety (scene size-up).
Question 4
You are assessing a 24-year-old male who was stabbed in the chest. He is conscious but
breathing rapidly and shallowly. You note a sucking sound coming from the wound. Your
immediate action should be to:
A) Apply a pressure bandage.
B) Cover the wound with an occlusive dressing taped on three sides.
C) Administer high-flow oxygen.
D) Immobilize the cervical spine.
E) Check for an exit wound.
Correct Answer: B) Cover the wound with an occlusive dressing taped on three sides.
Rationale: A sucking chest wound (open pneumothorax) is an immediate life threat that
compromises breathing. An occlusive dressing taped on three sides creates a flutter valve,
allowing air to escape but not enter, preventing tension pneumothorax. High-flow oxygen is
also critical but sealing the wound is the immediate mechanical intervention.
Question 5
A patient exhibiting signs of clammy skin, rapid shallow breathing, rapid weak pulse, and
decreasing mental status is likely experiencing:
A) An allergic reaction.
B) Hypovolemic shock.
C) A stroke.
D) Hyperglycemia.
E) A panic attack.
Correct Answer: B) Hypovolemic shock.
Rationale: These are classic signs of shock, specifically hypovolemic shock (shock due to
inadequate blood volume), where the body attempts to compensate for poor perfusion by
increasing heart rate and respiration, and diverting blood flow from the periphery.
Question 6
Which of the following best defines the term "chief complaint"?
A) The patient's entire medical history.
B) The most serious underlying medical condition.
C) The reason the patient called EMS.
D) The patient's emotional state.
E) The primary vital sign abnormality.
Correct Answer: C) The reason the patient called EMS.
,Rationale: The chief complaint is the main symptom or problem that led the patient or others
to seek emergency medical help. It's usually what the patient expresses as their primary
concern.
Question 7
During your primary assessment, you find a 55-year-old male unresponsive, apneic, and
pulseless. Your next immediate action should be to:
A) Administer two rescue breaths.
B) Check for a medical alert tag.
C) Begin chest compressions.
D) Open the airway using a head-tilt chin-lift.
E) Apply an AED.
Correct Answer: C) Begin chest compressions.
Rationale: For an unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless adult, immediate high-quality chest
compressions are the priority to circulate blood to vital organs, following the C-A-B
(Compressions, Airway, Breathing) sequence.
Question 8
When assessing a patient's pupils, you should note their:
A) Color, size, and reactivity.
B) Size, shape, and reactivity to light.
C) Symmetry, clarity, and movement.
D) Size, color, and movement.
E) Shape, color, and clarity.
Correct Answer: B) Size, shape, and reactivity to light.
Rationale: Pupils should be assessed for their resting size, whether they are round and equal
in shape, and how they react (constrict) to a direct light stimulus. PERRL (Pupils Equal, Round,
Reactive to Light) is the common mnemonic.
Question 9
What is the appropriate rate of ventilations for an adult patient in respiratory arrest with a
pulse?
A) 10-12 breaths per minute.
B) 12-20 breaths per minute.
C) 20-24 breaths per minute.
D) 6-8 breaths per minute.
E) 15-30 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: A) 10-12 breaths per minute.
Rationale: For an adult in respiratory arrest (apneic) with a pulse, provide one ventilation
, every 5-6 seconds, which equates to 10-12 breaths per minute. This rate is sufficient to
maintain oxygenation without causing hyperventilation.
Question 10
A 30-year-old female complains of severe abdominal pain. She states she has a history of
Crohn's disease. This information is considered part of the:
A) Chief complaint.
B) Present illness.
C) Past medical history.
D) Social history.
E) Family history.
Correct Answer: C) Past medical history.
Rationale: Crohn's disease is a chronic condition the patient has had previously, making it part
of her past medical history. The severe abdominal pain is her chief complaint/present illness.
Question 11
Which of the following signs would indicate adequate perfusion in an infant?
A) Capillary refill time of 4 seconds.
B) Weak, thready pulse.
C) Warm, pink skin.
D) Mottled skin.
E) Sunken fontanelle.
Correct Answer: C) Warm, pink skin.
Rationale: Warm, pink, dry skin is a good indicator of adequate peripheral perfusion (blood
flow) in any patient, including infants. Mottled skin, prolonged capillary refill, and weak
pulses are signs of poor perfusion.
Question 12
When assisting a conscious patient with a known history of asthma and a prescribed metered-
dose inhaler, what is the most important step after the patient exhales deeply?
A) Have the patient hold their breath for 10 seconds.
B) Shake the inhaler vigorously.
C) Instruct the patient to activate the inhaler while inhaling deeply.
D) Advise the patient to take a second puff immediately.
E) Administer oxygen.
Correct Answer: C) Instruct the patient to activate the inhaler while inhaling deeply.
Rationale: For optimal medication delivery, the patient must coordinate activating the inhaler
with a slow, deep inhalation so the medication reaches the lower airways.
UPDATED 100% VERIFIED GET IT CORRECT!!!
Question 1
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, your first priority as an EMT is:
A) Assessing the most critically injured patient.
B) Calling for additional resources.
C) Ensuring scene safety.
D) Obtaining a detailed patient history.
E) Controlling severe bleeding.
Correct Answer: C) Ensuring scene safety.
Rationale: Scene safety is always the first priority in any emergency. You cannot effectively
help patients if you or your team become part of the incident.
Question 2
A 68-year-old male complains of sudden onset chest pain radiating to his left arm. He is
conscious and alert but appears anxious. His skin is pale, cool, and clammy. You should first:
A) Administer aspirin if not contraindicated.
B) Obtain a blood pressure.
C) Apply oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
D) Assist with prescribed nitroglycerin.
E) Transport immediately.
Correct Answer: C) Apply oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
Rationale: For a patient with suspected cardiac chest pain, providing supplemental oxygen is a
high priority to maximize oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While aspirin and nitroglycerin
are important, addressing oxygenation comes first in the immediate
airway/breathing/circulation assessment.
Question 3
Which of the following describes the correct order of assessment for a responsive medical
patient?
A) Scene size-up, primary assessment, history taking, secondary assessment, reassessment.
B) Primary assessment, history taking, scene size-up, secondary assessment, reassessment.
C) Scene size-up, secondary assessment, primary assessment, history taking, reassessment.
D) History taking, primary assessment, scene size-up, secondary assessment, reassessment.
E) Scene size-up, primary assessment, secondary assessment, history taking, reassessment.
Correct Answer: A) Scene size-up, primary assessment, history taking, secondary assessment,
reassessment.
Rationale: This sequence ensures that immediate life threats are addressed (primary
assessment), followed by gathering information (history taking), conducting a thorough
,physical exam (secondary assessment), and continuously monitoring the patient
(reassessment), all initiated by scene safety (scene size-up).
Question 4
You are assessing a 24-year-old male who was stabbed in the chest. He is conscious but
breathing rapidly and shallowly. You note a sucking sound coming from the wound. Your
immediate action should be to:
A) Apply a pressure bandage.
B) Cover the wound with an occlusive dressing taped on three sides.
C) Administer high-flow oxygen.
D) Immobilize the cervical spine.
E) Check for an exit wound.
Correct Answer: B) Cover the wound with an occlusive dressing taped on three sides.
Rationale: A sucking chest wound (open pneumothorax) is an immediate life threat that
compromises breathing. An occlusive dressing taped on three sides creates a flutter valve,
allowing air to escape but not enter, preventing tension pneumothorax. High-flow oxygen is
also critical but sealing the wound is the immediate mechanical intervention.
Question 5
A patient exhibiting signs of clammy skin, rapid shallow breathing, rapid weak pulse, and
decreasing mental status is likely experiencing:
A) An allergic reaction.
B) Hypovolemic shock.
C) A stroke.
D) Hyperglycemia.
E) A panic attack.
Correct Answer: B) Hypovolemic shock.
Rationale: These are classic signs of shock, specifically hypovolemic shock (shock due to
inadequate blood volume), where the body attempts to compensate for poor perfusion by
increasing heart rate and respiration, and diverting blood flow from the periphery.
Question 6
Which of the following best defines the term "chief complaint"?
A) The patient's entire medical history.
B) The most serious underlying medical condition.
C) The reason the patient called EMS.
D) The patient's emotional state.
E) The primary vital sign abnormality.
Correct Answer: C) The reason the patient called EMS.
,Rationale: The chief complaint is the main symptom or problem that led the patient or others
to seek emergency medical help. It's usually what the patient expresses as their primary
concern.
Question 7
During your primary assessment, you find a 55-year-old male unresponsive, apneic, and
pulseless. Your next immediate action should be to:
A) Administer two rescue breaths.
B) Check for a medical alert tag.
C) Begin chest compressions.
D) Open the airway using a head-tilt chin-lift.
E) Apply an AED.
Correct Answer: C) Begin chest compressions.
Rationale: For an unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless adult, immediate high-quality chest
compressions are the priority to circulate blood to vital organs, following the C-A-B
(Compressions, Airway, Breathing) sequence.
Question 8
When assessing a patient's pupils, you should note their:
A) Color, size, and reactivity.
B) Size, shape, and reactivity to light.
C) Symmetry, clarity, and movement.
D) Size, color, and movement.
E) Shape, color, and clarity.
Correct Answer: B) Size, shape, and reactivity to light.
Rationale: Pupils should be assessed for their resting size, whether they are round and equal
in shape, and how they react (constrict) to a direct light stimulus. PERRL (Pupils Equal, Round,
Reactive to Light) is the common mnemonic.
Question 9
What is the appropriate rate of ventilations for an adult patient in respiratory arrest with a
pulse?
A) 10-12 breaths per minute.
B) 12-20 breaths per minute.
C) 20-24 breaths per minute.
D) 6-8 breaths per minute.
E) 15-30 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: A) 10-12 breaths per minute.
Rationale: For an adult in respiratory arrest (apneic) with a pulse, provide one ventilation
, every 5-6 seconds, which equates to 10-12 breaths per minute. This rate is sufficient to
maintain oxygenation without causing hyperventilation.
Question 10
A 30-year-old female complains of severe abdominal pain. She states she has a history of
Crohn's disease. This information is considered part of the:
A) Chief complaint.
B) Present illness.
C) Past medical history.
D) Social history.
E) Family history.
Correct Answer: C) Past medical history.
Rationale: Crohn's disease is a chronic condition the patient has had previously, making it part
of her past medical history. The severe abdominal pain is her chief complaint/present illness.
Question 11
Which of the following signs would indicate adequate perfusion in an infant?
A) Capillary refill time of 4 seconds.
B) Weak, thready pulse.
C) Warm, pink skin.
D) Mottled skin.
E) Sunken fontanelle.
Correct Answer: C) Warm, pink skin.
Rationale: Warm, pink, dry skin is a good indicator of adequate peripheral perfusion (blood
flow) in any patient, including infants. Mottled skin, prolonged capillary refill, and weak
pulses are signs of poor perfusion.
Question 12
When assisting a conscious patient with a known history of asthma and a prescribed metered-
dose inhaler, what is the most important step after the patient exhales deeply?
A) Have the patient hold their breath for 10 seconds.
B) Shake the inhaler vigorously.
C) Instruct the patient to activate the inhaler while inhaling deeply.
D) Advise the patient to take a second puff immediately.
E) Administer oxygen.
Correct Answer: C) Instruct the patient to activate the inhaler while inhaling deeply.
Rationale: For optimal medication delivery, the patient must coordinate activating the inhaler
with a slow, deep inhalation so the medication reaches the lower airways.
