NUR2407 / NUR 2407: PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM (LATEST
2026) RASMUSSEN | 120 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS & RATIONALES ALREADY GRADED A+
Question 1
A patient prescribed warfarin is being discharged. Which statement by the
patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will keep my follow-up INR appointments.”
B. “I can eat as much spinach as I want since it is healthy.”
C. “I will inform my dentist I take warfarin before any procedure.”
D. “I will use a soft toothbrush to avoid bleeding.”
Rationale: Leafy greens (spinach, kale) are high in vitamin K, which
antagonizes warfarin and reduces its effectiveness. This requires consistent
intake, not unlimited use.
Question 2
A nurse is administering digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which
finding should prompt the nurse to hold the dose and notify the provider?
A. Heart rate of 82 bpm
B. Digoxin level of 1.8 ng/mL
C. Heart rate of 48 bpm
D. Mild ankle edema
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The nurse should hold if HR <
60 bpm and notify the provider.
Question 3
Which teaching is essential for a patient prescribed albuterol inhaler for
asthma?
A. “Use the inhaler every morning and night, even when well.”
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B. “Rinse your mouth after each use.”
C. “Use the inhaler at the first sign of wheezing or shortness of breath.”
D. “Store the inhaler in the refrigerator.”
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2-agonist (rescue inhaler) used at
the onset of asthma symptoms. Rinsing mouth is for corticosteroid inhalers,
not albuterol.
Question 4
The nurse reviews labs for a patient on furosemide. Which lab value is most
concerning?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Chloride 101 mEq/L
C. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
D. BUN 16 mg/dL
Rationale: Furosemide causes potassium loss, risking hypokalemia (muscle
weakness, arrhythmias). Potassium < 3.5 mEq/L is dangerous.
Question 5
A patient taking lithium reports nausea and tremors. Which finding suggests
lithium toxicity?
A. Weight gain
B. Increased thirst
C. Coarse hand tremors
D. Headache
Rationale: Fine tremors are expected. Coarse tremors, nausea, vomiting,
confusion, and ataxia indicate toxicity, often when lithium > 1.5 mEq/L.
Question 6
Which instruction should the nurse give a patient taking nitroglycerin
sublingual tablets?
A. “Swallow the tablet with water.”
B. “Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve.”
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C. “Chew the tablet for faster relief.”
D. “Take the tablet only if chest pain lasts longer than 30 minutes.”
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin dissolves under the tongue for rapid
absorption. It should be taken at the onset of chest pain, not delayed.
Question 7
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in children due to risk of tooth
discoloration?
A. Penicillin
B. Azithromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Cephalexin
Rationale: Tetracyclines can cause permanent tooth discoloration and
impaired bone growth in children under 8 and in pregnancy.
Question 8
A nurse prepares to administer morphine IV for severe pain. Which
assessment is priority?
A. Pain level
B. Blood pressure
C. Respiratory rate
D. Bowel sounds
Rationale: Morphine causes respiratory depression. Always assess
respiratory rate before administration; hold if < 12/min.
Question 9
Which statement indicates correct patient understanding about levothyroxine
therapy?
A. “I can stop the medication if I feel better.”
B. “I will take this medication every morning before breakfast.”
C. “I should expect immediate relief of my symptoms.”
D. “I can take this medication at bedtime with a snack.”
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Rationale: Levothyroxine is best taken in the morning on an empty
stomach. It requires lifelong therapy, with effect in several weeks.
Question 10
A patient receiving gentamicin reports tinnitus. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Continue monitoring
B. Offer ear drops
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider
D. Reassure the patient it is normal
Rationale: Tinnitus suggests ototoxicity, a serious adverse effect of
aminoglycosides, requiring discontinuation.
Question 11
Which lab test should be monitored in a patient on heparin infusion?
A. INR
B. Platelet count
C. aPTT
D. Hemoglobin
Rationale: Heparin effectiveness is monitored by aPTT (therapeutic 1.5–2.5
× control). INR is used for warfarin.
Question 12
Which side effect is commonly associated with ACE inhibitors such as
lisinopril?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Persistent dry cough
D. Constipation
Rationale: ACE inhibitors block bradykinin breakdown, leading to dry
cough. They may also cause hyperkalemia and angioedema.