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WGU D027 COMPREHENSIVE MEDICAL EXAM WITH 200+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS| GRADED A+ FOR QUICK REVIEW

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A patient who has traveler's diarrhea asks the nurse about using loperamide to stop the symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient about this drug? - Answer "Use of this drug may prolong symptoms by slowing peristalsis and should not be used for infectious diarrhea." - Loperamide is recommended to treat mild diarrheal illness. It should not be used for infectious diarrhea due to its slowing the body's mechanisms of expelling the infectious agent. A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus takes glipizide. The patient develops a urinary tract infection, and the prescriber orders trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ). What will the nurse tell the patient? - Answer "The patient should check the blood glucose level more often while taking TMP/SMZ." - The SMZ in TMP/SMZ increases the effect of glipizide, which puts the patient at risk of hypoglycemia. (Blood glucose should be tested more frequently while taking TMP/SMZ.) A young, nonpregnant female patient with a history of a previous urinary tract infection (UTI) is experiencing dysuria, urinary urgency and frequency, and suprapubic pain of three days' duration. She is afebrile. A urine culture is positive for more than 100,000/mL of CFU urine. Which treatment should the nurse caring for this patient recommend? - Answer A three-day course of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim] - A female UTI is treated with either a single-dose, short course, or long course of antibiotics, depending on the etiology. Eighty percent of female recurrent UTIs are due to reinfection versus relapse and should be treated as a new infection with a short course of antibiotics. Short-course therapy is more efficacious than single dose therapy in treating uncomplicated UTIs in nonpregnant women with symptoms that last less than seven days. A patient complains of painful urination. A physical examination reveals vesicles on her labia, vagina, and the foreskin of her clitoris. The nurse will expect to teach this patient about which medication? - Answer Acyclovir [Zovirax] - Vesicular infections caused by herpes simplex genitalis are treated with antiviral agents like acyclovir and valacyclovir [Valtrex]. A 54-year-old Caucasian man comes in for a lab review. His lipids reveal an LDL of 180, an HDL of 52, and triglycerides of 326. He has no history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) or diabetes. His blood pressure is 118/64. He has a pulse rate of 64, and he weighs 320 lb. He smokes one pack of cigarettes per day, and his ASCVD risk score is 12.8. Which medication should this patient be started on? - Answer Atorvastatin (Lipitor) 20mg - Atorvastatin is more effective in reducing total cholesterol having a greater impact on lowering LDL cholesterol. The American College of Cardiology guidelines on blood cholesterol management emphasize that the greater the reduction in the LDL-C on statin therapy, the greater the subsequent risk reduction. A 73-year-old man with congestive heart failure (CHF) comes to a clinic complaining of shortness of breath. He is currently taking 6.25 mg carvedilol (Coreg) twice a day and 50 mg losartan (Cozaar) and 20 mg furosemide (Lasix) daily. His oxygen saturation is 95%, and he has a pulse of 64. His BP is 138/82, and his BNP is 1500. Using the 2017 heart failure guidelines, which medication change should be recommended for this patient? - Answer Stop angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) and add sacubitril/valsartan (Entresto) - In this case, the elevated BNP indicates significant heart failure. Guidelines recommend replacing an ARB or ACE inhibitor with an ARNI such as Entresto. A 78-year-old man comes in with stable angina. He reports he has been having more angina recently. He is currently taking the following medications: lisinopril (Zestril), atorvastatin (Lipitor), aspirin, and nitrostat PRN for chest pain. He has a history of COPD with bronchospasm. His blood pressure is 145/88, and he has a pulse of 74. Which class of medications should be avoided for this patient? - Answer Beta blockers - The use of nonselective beta blockers is contraindicated in the management of patients with a history of COPD or asthma because they impact both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors and precipitate bronchospasms. Cardioselective beta blockers, while less likely to cause bronchospasms, may still add to the risk of respiratory compromise. Which statement regarding hypertension (HTN) is true? - Answer One of the most important factors affecting blood pressure is sodium intake - A family history of HTN accounts for upwards of 40% of variation in blood pressure. Stress, obesity, lifestyle, and dietary intake of sodium especially are significant causes of HTN. What statement regarding type 2 diabetes is true? - Answer It accounts for 90-95% of all cases of diabetes - Only 5% of all individuals with diabetes are diagnosed with type 1 diabetes, while 90-95% of individuals with diabetes are diagnosed with type 2 (Rosenthal, L., & Burchum, J. (2018), p. 485). A nurse is teaching a group of women about medications. The women want to know why so many drugs have unpredictable effects in women. The nurse should tell them which of the following? - Answer Most known drug effects are based on drug trials in men - Most drug studies have been conducted on subjects who are white and male. This creates an opportunity for unexpected side effects in females that would otherwise have been known had enough women been enrolled in drug trials. A nurse administers the same medication in the same preparation in the same dose to several patients and notes that some patients have a better response to the drug than others. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon? - Answer Pharmacogenomic differences among individuals - Varying individual responses to drugs are driven by genetic differences between persons. The study of genes and drug responses is pharmacogenomics. A patient has been taking narcotic analgesics for chronic pain for several months. The nurse caring for this patient notes that the prescribed dose is higher than the recommended dose. The patient has normal vital signs, is awake and alert, and reports mild pain. What should the nurse recognize about this patient? - Answer This patient has developed pharmacodynamic tolerance, which has increased the minimal effective concentration (MEC) needed for an analgesic effect - After taking narcotic analgesics for several months, the patient has developed pharmacodynamic tolerance due to chronic binding to G protein-coupled receptors. This leads to an increased MEC needed to reduce pain. A nursing student asks a nurse what the natural medicines brand evidence-based rating (NMBER) system that rates dietary supplements means. The nurse should respond that the NMBER system _________. - Answer helps consumers evaluate the safety and efficacy of products - The natural medicines brand evidence-based rating (NMBER) allows the consumer to evaluate natural products on a scale of 1 (lowest rated) to 10 (highest rated), which allows for a more informed process in choosing safe, effective products. A patient admitted to the emergency department with abdominal pain tells the nurse he has been taking kava. Which action is the nurse's priority at this time? - Answer Review liver function studies - Kava, an herbal treatment for anxiety and insomnia, is hepatotoxic and has been linked to liver failure. Which of the following statements are true? - Answer Overweight individuals who lose weight can reduce their blood pressure 60-80% - The DASH diet, exercise, and weight loss all reduce BP. Nicotine replacement has no effect on BP, while smoking and excessive alcohol use both increase BP (Rosenthal, L., & Burchum, J. (2018), p. 377). The United States Affordable Care Act (ACA) has __________. - Answer improved healthcare disparities for those who have encountered problems in coverage and access - The ACA has improved healthcare disparities by making health insurance more accessible. Problems with access, cost, and quality of healthcare still remain. What is an important principle for understanding healthcare disparities? - Answer Constraints on clinician and patient decision-making affect healthcare disparities - Artificial restraints on patient-provider decision-making due to third-party payment systems, pre-approval processes, and the many inefficiencies of a fee-for-service model create disparities for patients. Which statement is true regarding childhood cancer? - Answer Leukemia is the most common malignancy in children - Cancer in childhood is rare. (Yet it is the leading cause of death for children.) Adult cancers are theorized to be due to early exposure to environmental factors (long latency period). However, childhood and adolescent cancers do not appear to have a long latency period. Leukemia is the most common type of cancer in childhood. Which statement is true concerning the prognosis of childhood cancers? - Answer Nearly 85% of childhood cancers are cured - Survival rates have improved over time for children diagnosed with cancer. Currently, 85% of children with cancer will survive. This improvement in survivability is due to combination therapy. Unfortunately, young children are more likely to develop long-term sequelae related to cancer therapy. Which of the following changes can be caused by aging of the nervous system? - Answer Sleep disturbances - Aging is associated with decreased memory, increased sleep disturbances, decreased tendon reflexes, and a decreased sense of taste. What indicates hypokalemia? - Answer Serum K decreases to less than 3.5 - Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L, with some variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age, and other potential patient-specific conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid volume or the administration of a supplement alone do not necessarily contribute to the development of hypokalemia. What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - Answer Uterine enlargement due to pregnancy - Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while hypertrophy is the enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a change in the number of cells. Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in response to increased work or stress from exercise or increased cardiovascular pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it is the one internal solid organ capable of regeneration to repair itself creating more cells (hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge those existing cells in preparation for the support of a fetus. What regulates the sodium balance? - Answer Aldosterone - Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the kidneys' regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion. What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? - Answer Hypotonic - In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the extracellular fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic states are a balanced state between intra- and extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic states cause water to shift out of the cell to increase the ECF above normal. When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - Answer Hydrogen - Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of maintaining pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42) Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - Answer pH below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L - The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that the pH is less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L. What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? - Answer Translation - Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is synthesized. Mutation means genetic material has been modified through inheritance. Creation is a term that does not apply in this context. Which of the following are affected by the endocrine changes brought on by aging? - Answer The thyroid gland - Changes to the thyroid gland and pancreas that are associated with aging affect metabolism and insulin secretion. Which of the following cannot be caused by anorexia of aging? - Answer Increased orexigenic signals - Sense of smell and taste decline with age along with orexigenic (appetite stimulating) hormones, which leads to decreased hunger. Additionally, decreased thyroid hormone, less lean muscle mass, and reduced physical activity lead to reduced energy needs. What causes hot flashes associated with declining ovarian function with age? - Answer High estrogen levels - The erratic, high production of estrogen during the transition to menopause is the cause of hot flashes. What can aging in the cardiovascular system lead to? - Answer Left ventricular hypertrophy - Cardiovascular changes associated with aging include the stiffening of arteries, which can lead to increased blood pressure, left ventricular hypertrophy, and decreased exercise capacity. Which of the following is not included as standard management of hypertension (HTN) in children? - Answer Use of ACE inhibitors in sexually active females - Ambulatory BP monitoring and an echocardiogram should be used to determine the severity and any underlying primary causes of hypertension (HTN) in children. Lifestyle modification should be the first step in reducing blood pressure, and childhood HTN should be treated as it is in adults. ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors and ARBs (angiotensin 2 receptor blockers) should be avoided in sexually active females who may become pregnant, due to the risk of fetal harm. Beta Blockers - Answer -"lols" -decrease heart rate and dilate arteries by blocking beta receptors CI: DM, asthma, COPD AE: (cholinergic response) v HR, v HT, **bronchospasm** HTN meds for peripheral resistance - Answer Calcium Channel Blocker "pines" ACE Inhibitors "prils" ATII Receptor blocker (ARBs) "sartan" Calcium Channel Blockers - Answer -"pines" amlodipine, nicardipine -Ca promotes vasoconstriction -inhibit the entry of calcium ions into heart muscle cells, causing a slowing of the heart rate, a lessening of the demand for oxygen and nutrients, relaxing of the smooth muscle cells of the blood vessels to cause dilation; -used to prevent or treat angina pectoris, some arrhythmias, and hypertension -AE: periph edema, angioedema ACE inhibitors - Answer angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors "prils" Lisinopril MOA: AT II inhibited->arterial vasodilation & diuresis AE: ^ K, angioedema, dry cough-d/t break down of bradykinin CI: diuretic use Monitor: K Angiotensin Receptor Blockers - Answer "sartan" Losartan MOA: prevent angiotensin II from reaching its receptors, causing vasodilation, ^ UOP AE: ^ K, angioedema CI: v K When norepinephrine binds with alpha-2 receptors, the expected physiologic response is: -Bradycardia -Dry mouth -Tachycardia -hypertension - Answer Bradycardia Alpha 2 receptors have a cholinergic response Cholinergic response - Answer Rest & Digest stimulation of the parasympathetic response manifested by lacrimation, diaphoresis, salivation, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. v HR & BP Alpha-Adrenergic response - Answer sympathetic (fight or flight) ^ HR, vasoconstriction, pupil dilation, digestion inhibited, dry mouth, bronchodialation Beta-adrenergic response - Answer primarily affects the heart- ^ contractility and lungs-bronchodilation TB... PPD is positive if area of induration is: - Answer >5 mm in an immunocompromised patient >10 mm in people born in countries w/ TB, work in high-risk areas, homeless

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WGU D027 COMPREHENSIVE MEDICAL
EXAM WITH 200+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS| GRADED A+ FOR
QUICK REVIEW


A patient who has traveler's diarrhea asks the nurse about using loperamide to stop
the symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient about this drug? - Answer "Use
of this drug may prolong symptoms by slowing peristalsis and should not be used
for infectious diarrhea." -
Loperamide is recommended to treat mild diarrheal illness. It should not be used
for infectious diarrhea due to its slowing the body's mechanisms of expelling the
infectious agent.


A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus takes glipizide. The patient develops a
urinary tract infection, and the prescriber orders trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
(TMP/SMZ). What will the nurse tell the patient? - Answer "The patient should
check the blood glucose level more often while taking TMP/SMZ." -
The SMZ in TMP/SMZ increases the effect of glipizide, which puts the patient at
risk of hypoglycemia. (Blood glucose should be tested more frequently while
taking TMP/SMZ.)


A young, nonpregnant female patient with a history of a previous urinary tract
infection (UTI) is experiencing dysuria, urinary urgency and frequency, and
suprapubic pain of three days' duration. She is afebrile. A urine culture is positive
for more than 100,000/mL of CFU urine. Which treatment should the nurse caring

,for this patient recommend? - Answer A three-day course of
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim] -
A female UTI is treated with either a single-dose, short course, or long course of
antibiotics, depending on the etiology. Eighty percent of female recurrent UTIs are
due to reinfection versus relapse and should be treated as a new infection with a
short course of antibiotics. Short-course therapy is more efficacious than single-
dose therapy in treating uncomplicated UTIs in nonpregnant women with
symptoms that last less than seven days.


A patient complains of painful urination. A physical examination reveals vesicles
on her labia, vagina, and the foreskin of her clitoris. The nurse will expect to teach
this patient about which medication? - Answer Acyclovir [Zovirax] -
Vesicular infections caused by herpes simplex genitalis are treated with antiviral
agents like acyclovir and valacyclovir [Valtrex].


A 54-year-old Caucasian man comes in for a lab review. His lipids reveal an LDL
of 180, an HDL of 52, and triglycerides of 326. He has no history of atherosclerotic
cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) or diabetes. His blood pressure is 118/64. He has
a pulse rate of 64, and he weighs 320 lb. He smokes one pack of cigarettes per day,
and his ASCVD risk score is 12.8.
Which medication should this patient be started on? - Answer Atorvastatin
(Lipitor) 20mg -
Atorvastatin is more effective in reducing total cholesterol having a greater impact
on lowering LDL cholesterol. The American College of Cardiology guidelines on
blood cholesterol management emphasize that the greater the reduction in the
LDL-C on statin therapy, the greater the subsequent risk reduction.


A 73-year-old man with congestive heart failure (CHF) comes to a clinic
complaining of shortness of breath. He is currently taking 6.25 mg carvedilol
(Coreg) twice a day and 50 mg losartan (Cozaar) and 20 mg furosemide (Lasix)

,daily. His oxygen saturation is 95%, and he has a pulse of 64. His BP is 138/82,
and his BNP is 1500.
Using the 2017 heart failure guidelines, which medication change should be
recommended for this patient? - Answer Stop angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB)
and add sacubitril/valsartan (Entresto) -
In this case, the elevated BNP indicates significant heart failure. Guidelines
recommend replacing an ARB or ACE inhibitor with an ARNI such as Entresto.


A 78-year-old man comes in with stable angina. He reports he has been having
more angina recently. He is currently taking the following medications: lisinopril
(Zestril), atorvastatin (Lipitor), aspirin, and nitrostat PRN for chest pain. He has a
history of COPD with bronchospasm. His blood pressure is 145/88, and he has a
pulse of 74.
Which class of medications should be avoided for this patient? - Answer Beta
blockers -
The use of nonselective beta blockers is contraindicated in the management of
patients with a history of COPD or asthma because they impact both beta 1 and
beta 2 receptors and precipitate bronchospasms. Cardioselective beta blockers,
while less likely to cause bronchospasms, may still add to the risk of respiratory
compromise.


Which statement regarding hypertension (HTN) is true? - Answer One of the most
important factors affecting blood pressure is sodium intake -
A family history of HTN accounts for upwards of 40% of variation in blood
pressure. Stress, obesity, lifestyle, and dietary intake of sodium especially are
significant causes of HTN.


What statement regarding type 2 diabetes is true? - Answer It accounts for 90-95%
of all cases of diabetes -

, Only 5% of all individuals with diabetes are diagnosed with type 1 diabetes, while
90-95% of individuals with diabetes are diagnosed with type 2 (Rosenthal, L., &
Burchum, J. (2018), p. 485).


A nurse is teaching a group of women about medications. The women want to
know why so many drugs have unpredictable effects in women. The nurse should
tell them which of the following? - Answer Most known drug effects are based on
drug trials in men -
Most drug studies have been conducted on subjects who are white and male. This
creates an opportunity for unexpected side effects in females that would otherwise
have been known had enough women been enrolled in drug trials.


A nurse administers the same medication in the same preparation in the same dose
to several patients and notes that some patients have a better response to the drug
than others. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon? - Answer
Pharmacogenomic differences among individuals -
Varying individual responses to drugs are driven by genetic differences between
persons. The study of genes and drug responses is pharmacogenomics.


A patient has been taking narcotic analgesics for chronic pain for several months.
The nurse caring for this patient notes that the prescribed dose is higher than the
recommended dose. The patient has normal vital signs, is awake and alert, and
reports mild pain. What should the nurse recognize about this patient? - Answer
This patient has developed pharmacodynamic tolerance, which has increased the
minimal effective concentration (MEC) needed for an analgesic effect -
After taking narcotic analgesics for several months, the patient has developed
pharmacodynamic tolerance due to chronic binding to G protein-coupled receptors.
This leads to an increased MEC needed to reduce pain.
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