NUR 507 - EXAM
NUR 507 EXAM 3: LEIK PRACTICE
QUESTIONS EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026
COMPLETE ALL 350 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
|ALREADY GRADED A+||ALREADY
GRADED A+
A 30-year-old chef complains of pruritic hives over her chest and arms, but denies difficulty
swallowing or breathing. She reports a family history of allergic rhinitis and asthma. Which of the
following interventions is most appropriate?
A) Obtain a complete and thorough history
B) Recommend an oral antihistamine such as diphenhydramine 25 mg PO QID
C) Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly stat
D) Call 911
A) Obtain a complete and thorough history
Before prescribing medications, a thorough history must be obtained to determine possible causes
of hives. The patient denied difficulty with swallowing and breathing, so there was no medical
emergency that would require calling 911.
.!
Patients who are diagnosed with gonorrhea should also be treated for which of the following
infections?
A) Chancroid
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Herpes genitalis
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
When diagnosed with gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for Chlamydia trachomatis.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NUR 507 - EXAM
All of the following are infections that affect mostly the labia and vagina except:
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
Infections that commonly affect the labia and vagina include bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis, and
trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis commonly affects the cervix, endometrial lining, fallopian
tubes, and pelvic cavity
The nurse practitioner would test the obturator and iliopsoas muscle to evaluate for:
A) Cholecystitis
B) Acute appendicitis
C) Inguinal hernia
D) Gastric ulcer
B) Acute appendicitis
Signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen include involuntary guarding, rebound tenderness,
boardlike abdomen, and a positive obturator and psoas sign. A positive obturator sign occurs when
pain is elicted by internal rotation of the right hip from 90 degrees hip/knee flexion. The psoas sign is
positive when pain occurs with passive extension of the thigh while the patient is lying on his or her
side with knees extended, or when pain occurs with active flexion of the thigh at the hip
.!
A 30-year-old woman who is sexually active complains of a large amount of milk-like vaginal
discharge for several weeks. A microscopy slide reveals a large number of squamous epithelial cells
that have blurred margins. Very few white blood cells are seen. The vaginal pH is at 6.0. What is most
likely?
A) Trichomonas infection
B) Bacterial vaginosis
C) Candidal infection
D) A normal finding
B) Bacterial vaginosis
In bacterial vaginosis (BV), the normal hydrogen peroxideproducing lactobacilli are replaced by an
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NUR 507 - EXAM
overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria. BV is a vaginosis (does not cause inflammation) rather than a
vaginitis. No symptoms may be present or the patient's history may include strong vaginal odor
("fishy" odor) and increased vaginal discharge (milky white, thin, adherent discharge or dull gray
discharge). Findings include alkaline pH greater than 4.5, the presence of clue cells (wet smear using
microscopy), and positive "whiff test" (a strong "fishy" odor when vaginal discharge is mixed with
one drop of potassium hydroxide [KOH]). Clue cells are squamous epithelial cells dotted with large
numbers of bacteria that obscure borders.
Fetal TORCH infections can cause microcephaly, mental retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, and
intrauterine growth retardation. The acronym TORCH stands for:
A) Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
B) Toxic shock syndrome, ocular infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes zoster
C) Tetanus, ophthalmic infections, roseola, cancer, and head abnormalities
D) Toxins, other infections, roseola, candidiasis, and head abnormalities
A) Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
The acronym TORCH stands for Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and
herpes. Although several of the conditions listed in the other answer options can also cause fetal
problems, they do not comprise the TORCH disorders.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection of the larynx has been associated with:
A) Laryngeal cancer
B) Esophageal stricture
C) Cervical cancer
D) Metaplasia of the squamous cells
A) Laryngeal cancer
Human papillomavirus (HPV) exposure is a risk factor in laryngeal cancer. HPV DNA transforms the
moist membranes of epithelial cells (cervix, anus, mouth, and throat). The juvenile type is related to
vertical transmission and the adult type to orogenital contact. HPV subtype 16 accounts for the
majority of oral tumors, oropharynx cancers, and laryngeal cases.
What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old soccer player signify?
A) Normal knee
B) Instability of the knee
C) Swelling on the knee
D) Injury to the meniscus
B) Instability of the knee
The drawer test is used to identify mediolateral or anteroposterior plane instability of the knee. The
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NUR 507 - EXAM
test is performed on the unaffected and affected knee for comparison. The anterior drawer test
evaluates the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). To perform the test, the patient lies supine and the
knee is placed at 90-degree flexion. Grasp the posterior aspect of the tibia over the upper calf
muscle; then, with a steady force, try to push the lower leg forward and backward. Anterior or
posterior movement of the knee is positive. With the leg extended, stabilize the femur with one
hand and the ankle with the other. Try to abduct and adduct the knee. There should be no medial or
lateral movement.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding acute gastritis?
A) Chronic intake of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause the disorder
B) Chronic lack of dietary fiber is the main cause of the disorder
C) The screening test for the disorder is the barium swallow test
D) The gold standard to evaluate the disorder is a colonoscopy
A) Chronic intake of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause the disorder
Signs and symptoms of gastritis are nausea/vomiting, upset stomach, loss of appetite, and
burning/aching or gnawing pain located in the epigastric area. Nonselective NSAIDs (aspirin,
ibuprofen, naproxen, others) have adverse effects on the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, kidneys, central
nervous system, and cardiovascular effects, and decrease platelet aggregation (aspirin). Chronic use
of nonselective NSAIDs disrupts the production of prostaglandins, which involves cycloxygenase-1
(COX-1) and COX-2. The GI mucosa uses COX-1 to produce mucosal protective factors. Blocking COX-1
decreases these protective factors and increases risk of gastritis, ulcers, and GI bleeding. Selective
NSAIDs, such as celecoxib (Celebrex), do less damage to the GI tract because they block only COX-2,
which is responsible for pain and inflammation.
A 22-year-old sexually active woman is complaining of amenorrhea and new-onset bloody vaginal
spotting. On examination, her left adnexa is tender and cervical motion tenderness is positive. Which
test should the nurse practitioner order initially?
A) Flat plate of the abdomen
B) Complete blood count (CBC) with white cell differential
C) Urine pregnancy test
D) Pelvic ultrasound
C) Urine pregnancy test
The patient's history of amenorrhea and new onset of bloody vaginal spotting combined with
positive physical findings of left adnexal tenderness and cervical motion tenderness are highly
suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy rather than pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Refer this patient
to the emergency department if ectopic pregnancy is suspected. The presence of amenorrhea
should be treated as a pregnancy until proven otherwise.
A+ TEST BANK 4
NUR 507 EXAM 3: LEIK PRACTICE
QUESTIONS EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026
COMPLETE ALL 350 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
|ALREADY GRADED A+||ALREADY
GRADED A+
A 30-year-old chef complains of pruritic hives over her chest and arms, but denies difficulty
swallowing or breathing. She reports a family history of allergic rhinitis and asthma. Which of the
following interventions is most appropriate?
A) Obtain a complete and thorough history
B) Recommend an oral antihistamine such as diphenhydramine 25 mg PO QID
C) Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly stat
D) Call 911
A) Obtain a complete and thorough history
Before prescribing medications, a thorough history must be obtained to determine possible causes
of hives. The patient denied difficulty with swallowing and breathing, so there was no medical
emergency that would require calling 911.
.!
Patients who are diagnosed with gonorrhea should also be treated for which of the following
infections?
A) Chancroid
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Herpes genitalis
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
When diagnosed with gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for Chlamydia trachomatis.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NUR 507 - EXAM
All of the following are infections that affect mostly the labia and vagina except:
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
Infections that commonly affect the labia and vagina include bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis, and
trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis commonly affects the cervix, endometrial lining, fallopian
tubes, and pelvic cavity
The nurse practitioner would test the obturator and iliopsoas muscle to evaluate for:
A) Cholecystitis
B) Acute appendicitis
C) Inguinal hernia
D) Gastric ulcer
B) Acute appendicitis
Signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen include involuntary guarding, rebound tenderness,
boardlike abdomen, and a positive obturator and psoas sign. A positive obturator sign occurs when
pain is elicted by internal rotation of the right hip from 90 degrees hip/knee flexion. The psoas sign is
positive when pain occurs with passive extension of the thigh while the patient is lying on his or her
side with knees extended, or when pain occurs with active flexion of the thigh at the hip
.!
A 30-year-old woman who is sexually active complains of a large amount of milk-like vaginal
discharge for several weeks. A microscopy slide reveals a large number of squamous epithelial cells
that have blurred margins. Very few white blood cells are seen. The vaginal pH is at 6.0. What is most
likely?
A) Trichomonas infection
B) Bacterial vaginosis
C) Candidal infection
D) A normal finding
B) Bacterial vaginosis
In bacterial vaginosis (BV), the normal hydrogen peroxideproducing lactobacilli are replaced by an
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NUR 507 - EXAM
overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria. BV is a vaginosis (does not cause inflammation) rather than a
vaginitis. No symptoms may be present or the patient's history may include strong vaginal odor
("fishy" odor) and increased vaginal discharge (milky white, thin, adherent discharge or dull gray
discharge). Findings include alkaline pH greater than 4.5, the presence of clue cells (wet smear using
microscopy), and positive "whiff test" (a strong "fishy" odor when vaginal discharge is mixed with
one drop of potassium hydroxide [KOH]). Clue cells are squamous epithelial cells dotted with large
numbers of bacteria that obscure borders.
Fetal TORCH infections can cause microcephaly, mental retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, and
intrauterine growth retardation. The acronym TORCH stands for:
A) Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
B) Toxic shock syndrome, ocular infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes zoster
C) Tetanus, ophthalmic infections, roseola, cancer, and head abnormalities
D) Toxins, other infections, roseola, candidiasis, and head abnormalities
A) Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
The acronym TORCH stands for Toxoplasma gondii, other infections, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and
herpes. Although several of the conditions listed in the other answer options can also cause fetal
problems, they do not comprise the TORCH disorders.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection of the larynx has been associated with:
A) Laryngeal cancer
B) Esophageal stricture
C) Cervical cancer
D) Metaplasia of the squamous cells
A) Laryngeal cancer
Human papillomavirus (HPV) exposure is a risk factor in laryngeal cancer. HPV DNA transforms the
moist membranes of epithelial cells (cervix, anus, mouth, and throat). The juvenile type is related to
vertical transmission and the adult type to orogenital contact. HPV subtype 16 accounts for the
majority of oral tumors, oropharynx cancers, and laryngeal cases.
What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old soccer player signify?
A) Normal knee
B) Instability of the knee
C) Swelling on the knee
D) Injury to the meniscus
B) Instability of the knee
The drawer test is used to identify mediolateral or anteroposterior plane instability of the knee. The
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NUR 507 - EXAM
test is performed on the unaffected and affected knee for comparison. The anterior drawer test
evaluates the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). To perform the test, the patient lies supine and the
knee is placed at 90-degree flexion. Grasp the posterior aspect of the tibia over the upper calf
muscle; then, with a steady force, try to push the lower leg forward and backward. Anterior or
posterior movement of the knee is positive. With the leg extended, stabilize the femur with one
hand and the ankle with the other. Try to abduct and adduct the knee. There should be no medial or
lateral movement.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding acute gastritis?
A) Chronic intake of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause the disorder
B) Chronic lack of dietary fiber is the main cause of the disorder
C) The screening test for the disorder is the barium swallow test
D) The gold standard to evaluate the disorder is a colonoscopy
A) Chronic intake of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause the disorder
Signs and symptoms of gastritis are nausea/vomiting, upset stomach, loss of appetite, and
burning/aching or gnawing pain located in the epigastric area. Nonselective NSAIDs (aspirin,
ibuprofen, naproxen, others) have adverse effects on the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, kidneys, central
nervous system, and cardiovascular effects, and decrease platelet aggregation (aspirin). Chronic use
of nonselective NSAIDs disrupts the production of prostaglandins, which involves cycloxygenase-1
(COX-1) and COX-2. The GI mucosa uses COX-1 to produce mucosal protective factors. Blocking COX-1
decreases these protective factors and increases risk of gastritis, ulcers, and GI bleeding. Selective
NSAIDs, such as celecoxib (Celebrex), do less damage to the GI tract because they block only COX-2,
which is responsible for pain and inflammation.
A 22-year-old sexually active woman is complaining of amenorrhea and new-onset bloody vaginal
spotting. On examination, her left adnexa is tender and cervical motion tenderness is positive. Which
test should the nurse practitioner order initially?
A) Flat plate of the abdomen
B) Complete blood count (CBC) with white cell differential
C) Urine pregnancy test
D) Pelvic ultrasound
C) Urine pregnancy test
The patient's history of amenorrhea and new onset of bloody vaginal spotting combined with
positive physical findings of left adnexal tenderness and cervical motion tenderness are highly
suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy rather than pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Refer this patient
to the emergency department if ectopic pregnancy is suspected. The presence of amenorrhea
should be treated as a pregnancy until proven otherwise.
A+ TEST BANK 4
