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Neuro Exam Questions and Correct Answers – 100% Correct and Verified

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Neuro Exam Questions and Correct Answers – 100% Correct and Verified Because the cell bodies of lower motor neurons are located in the spinal cord, damage to the neuron will decrease motor activity of the affected muscles. Spasticity and hyperactive reflexes are caused by upper motor neuron damage. Sensation is not impacted by motor neuron lesions." "The nurse performing a focused assessment of left posterior temporal lobe functions will assess the patient for a. sensation on the left side of the body. b. voluntary movements on the right side. c. reasoning and problem-solving abilities. d. understanding written and oral language. - Correct Answer d. understanding written and oral language. The posterior temporal lobe integrates the visual and auditory input for language comprehension. Reasoning and problem solving are functions of the anterior frontal lobe. Sensation on the left side of the body is located in the right postcentral gyrus. Voluntary movement on the right side is controlled in the left precentral gyrus." "Propranolol (Inderal), a b-adrenergic blocker that inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity, is prescribed for a patient who has extreme anxiety about public speaking. The nurse monitors the patient for a. dry mouth. b. bradycardia. c. constipation. d. urinary retention. - Correct Answer b. bradycardia Inhibition of the fight or flight response leads to a decreased heart rate. Dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention are associated with peripheral nervous system blockade." "To assess the functioning of the trigeminal and facial nerves (CNs V and VII), the nurse should a. shine a light into the patients pupil. b. check for unilateral eyelid drooping. c. touch a cotton wisp strand to the cornea. d. have the patient read a magazine or book. - Correct Answer a. shine a light into the patients pupil. The trigeminal and facial nerves are responsible for the corneal reflex. The optic nerve is tested by having the patient read a Snellen chart or a newspaper. Assessment of pupil response to light and ptosis are used to check function of the oculomotor nerve." "Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with impaired functioning of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and the vagus nerve (CN X)? a. Withhold oral fluid or foods. b. Provide highly seasoned foods. c. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. d. Apply artificial tears every hour. - Correct Answer a. Withhold oral fluid or foods. The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves innervate the pharynx and control the gag reflex. A patient with impaired function of these nerves is at risk for aspiration. An oral airway may be needed when a patient is unconscious and unable to maintain the airway, but it will not decrease aspiration risk. Taste and eye blink are controlled by the facial nerve." "An unconscious male patient has just arrived in the emergency department after a head injury caused by a motorcycle crash. Which order should the nurse question? a. Obtain x-rays of the skull and spine. b. Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture. c. Send for computed tomography (CT) scan. d. Perform neurologic checks every 15 minutes. - Correct Answer b. Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture. When admitting an acutely confused 20-year-old patient with a head injury, which action should the nurse take? a. Ask family members about the patients health history. b. Ask leading questions to assist in obtaining health data. c. Wait until the patient is better oriented to ask questions. d. Obtain only the physiologic neurologic assessment data. - Correct Answer a. Ask family members about the patients health history. When admitting a patient who is likely to be a poor historian, the nurse should obtain health history information from others who have knowledge about the patients health. Waiting until the patient is oriented or obtaining only physiologic data will result in incomplete assessment data, which could adversely affect decision making about treatment. Asking leading questions may result in inaccurate or incomplete information." "Which finding would the nurse expect when assessing the legs of a patient who has a lower motor neuron lesion? a. Spasticity b. Flaccidity c. No sensation d. Hyperactive reflexes - Correct Answer b. Flaccidity After a head injury, the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding and increased intracranial pressure, which could lead to herniation of the brain if a lumbar puncture is performed. The other orders are appropriate." "A patient with suspected meningitis is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Before the procedure, the nurse will plan to a. enforce NPO status for 4 hours. b. transfer the patient to radiology. c. administer a sedative medication. d. help the patient to a lateral position. - Correct Answer d. help the patient to a lateral position. For a lumbar puncture, the patient lies in the lateral recumbent position. The procedure does not usually require a sedative, is done in the patient room, and has no risk for aspiration." "During the neurologic assessment, the patient is unable to respond verbally to the nurse but cooperates with the nurses directions to move his hands and feet. The nurse will suspect a. cerebellar injury. b. a brainstem lesion. c. frontal lobe damage. d. a temporal lobe lesion. - Correct Answer c. frontal lobe damage. Expressive speech is controlled by Brocas area in the frontal lobe. The temporal lobe contains Wernickes area, which is responsible for receptive speech. The cerebellum and brainstem do not affect higher cognitive functions such as speech." "A 45-year-old patient has a dysfunction of the cerebellum. The nurse will plan interventions to a. prevent falls. b. stabilize mood. c. avoid aspiration. d. improve memory. - Correct Answer a. prevent falls. Because functions of the cerebellum include coordination and balance, the patient with dysfunction is at risk for falls. The cerebellum does not affect memory, mood, or swallowing ability. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: " "Which nursing diagnosis is expected to be appropriate for a patient who has a positive Romberg test? a. Acute pain b. Risk for falls c. Acute confusion d. Ineffective thermoregulation - Correct Answer b. Risk for falls "Which information about a 76-year-old patient is most important for the admitting nurse to report to the patients health care provider? a. Triceps reflex response graded at 1/5 b. Unintended weight loss of 20 pounds c. 10 mm Hg orthostatic drop in systolic blood pressure d. Patient complaint of chronic difficulty in falling asleep - Correct Answer b. Unintended weight loss of 20 pounds Although changes in appetite are normal with aging, a 20-pound weight loss requires further investigation. Orthostatic drops in blood pressure, changes in sleep patterns, and slowing of reflexes are normal changes in aging" "The charge nurse is observing a new staff nurse who is assessing a patient with a traumatic spinal cord injury for sensation. Which action indicates a need for further teaching of the new nurse about neurologic assessment? a. The new nurse tests for light touch before testing for pain. b. The new nurse has the patient close the eyes during testing. c. The new nurse asks the patient if the instrument feels sharp. d. The new nurse uses an irregular pattern to test for intact touch. - Correct Answer c. The new nurse asks the patient if the instrument feels sharp. When performing a sensory assessment, the nurse should not provide verbal clues. The other actions by the new nurse are appropriate." "Which cerebrospinal fluid analysis result will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Specific gravity 1.007 b. Protein 65 mg/dL (0.65 g/L) c. Glucose 45 mg/dL (1.7 mmol/L) d. White blood cell (WBC) count 4 cells/mL - Correct Answer b. Protein 65 mg/dL (0.65 g/L) The protein level is high. The specific gravity, WBCs, and glucose values are normal." "A 39-year-old patient with a suspected herniated intervertebral disc is scheduled for a myelogram. Which information is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider before the procedure? a. The patient is anxious about the test. b. The patient has an allergy to shellfish. c. The patient has back pain when lying flat. d. The patient drank apple juice 4 hours earlier. - Correct Answer b. The patient has an allergy to shellfish. Iodine-containing contrast medium is injected into the subarachnoid space during a myelogram. The health care provider may need to modify the postmyelogram orders to prevent back pain, but this can be done after the procedure. Clear liquids are usually considered safe up to 4 hours before a diagnostic or surgical procedure. The patients anxiety should be addressed, but this is not as important as the iodine allergy." "The priority nursing assessment for a 72-year-old patient being admitted with a brainstem infarction is a. reflex reaction time. b. pupil reaction to light. c. level of consciousness. d. respiratory rate and rhythm. - Correct Answer d. respiratory rate and rhythm. Vital centers that control respiration are located in the medulla, and these are the priority assessments because changes in respiratory function may be life threatening. The other information will also be collected by the nurse, but it is not as urgent." "Several patients have been hospitalized for diagnosis of neurologic problems. Which patient will the nurse assess first? a. Patient with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) returning from carotid duplex studies b. Patient with a brain tumor who has just arrived on the unit after a cerebral angiogram c. Patient with a seizure disorder who has just completed an electroencephalogram (EEG) d. Patient prepared for a lumbar puncture whose health care provider is waiting for assistance - Correct Answer b. Patient with a brain tumor who has just arrived on the unit after a cerebral angiogram Because cerebral angiograms require insertion of a catheter into the femoral artery, bleeding is a possible complication. The nurse will need to check the pulse, blood pressure, and the catheter insertion site in the groin as soon as the patient arrives. Carotid duplex studies and EEG are noninvasive. The nurse will need to assist with the lumbar puncture as soon as possible, but monitoring for hemorrhage after cerebral angiogram has a higher priority." "Which assessments will the nurse make to monitor a patients cerebellar function (select all that apply)? a. Assess for graphesthesia. b. Observe arm swing with gait. c. Perform the finger-to-nose test. d. Check ability to push against resistance. e. Determine ability to sense heat and cold. - Correct Answer b. Observe arm swing with gait. c. Perform the finger-to-nose test. The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and is assessed by looking at the patients gait and the finger-to-nose test. The other assessments will be used for other parts of the neurologic assessment." "Family members of a patient who has a traumatic brain injury ask the nurse about the purpose of the ventriculostomy system being used for intracranial pressure monitoring. Which response by the nurse is best? a. This type of monitoring system is complex and it is managed by skilled staff. b. The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate. c. The ventriculostomy monitoring system helps check for alterations in cerebral perfusion pressure. d. This monitoring system has multiple benefits including facilitation of cerebrospinal fluid drainage. - Correct Answer b. The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate. Short and simple explanations should be given initially to patients and family members. The other explanations are either too complicated to be easily understood or may increase the family members anxiety." "Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and respirations 26. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour after admission, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure 154/68, pulse 56, respirations 12 b. Blood pressure 134/72, pulse 90, respirations 32 c. Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations 28 d. Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations 30 - Correct Answer a. Blood pressure 154/68, pulse 56, respirations 12 Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushings triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process." "When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. b. localization of pain. c. decorticate posturing. d. decerebrate posturing. - Correct Answer c. decorticate posturing. Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal." "The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to determine the medications effectiveness? a. Blood pressure b. Oxygen saturation c. Intracranial pressure d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit - Correct Answer c. Intracranial pressure Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and will reduce cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It may initially reduce hematocrit and increase blood pressure, but these are not the best parameters for evaluation of the effectiveness of the drug. Oxygen saturation will not directly improve as a result of mannitol administration." "A 46-year-old patient with a head injury opens the eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. The nurse records the patients Glasgow Coma Scale score as a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15. - Correct Answer b. 11. The patient has a score of 3 for eye opening, 3 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response." "An unconscious 39-year-old male patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a head injury. The patients spouse and teenage children stay at the patients side and ask many questions about the treatment being given. What action is best for the nurse to take? a. Ask the family to stay in the waiting room until the initial assessment is completed. b. Allow the family to stay with the patient and briefly explain all procedures to them. c. Refer the family members to the hospital counseling service to deal with their anxiety. d. Call the familys pastor or spiritual advisor to take them to the chapel while care is given. - Correct Answer b. Allow the family to stay with the patient and briefly explain all procedures to them. The need for information about the diagnosis and care is very high in family members of acutely ill patients. The nurse should allow the family to observe care and explain the procedures unless they interfere with emergent care needs. A pastor or counseling service can offer some support, but research supports information as being more effective. Asking the family to stay in the waiting room will increase their anxiety." "A 41-year-old patient who is unconscious has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods. - Correct Answer c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. The patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be maintained in the head-up position to help reduce ICP. Extreme flexion of the hips and knees increases abdominal pressure, which increases ICP. Because the stimulation associated with nursing interventions increases ICP, clustering interventions will progressively elevate ICP." "A 20-year-old male patient is admitted with a head injury after a collision while playing football. After noting that the patient has developed clear nasal drainage, which action should the nurse take? a. Have the patient gently blow the nose. b. Check the drainage for glucose content. c. Teach the patient that rhinorrhea is expected after a head injury. d. Obtain a specimen of the fluid to send for culture and sensitivity. - Correct Answer b. Check the drainage for glucose content. Clear nasal drainage in a patient with a head injury suggests a dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. If the drainage is CSF, it will test positive for glucose. Fluid leaking from the nose will have normal nasal flora, so culture and sensitivity will not be useful. Blowing the nose is avoided to prevent CSF leakage." "Which action will the emergency department nurse anticipate for a patient diagnosed with a concussion who did not lose consciousness? a. Coordinate the transfer of the patient to the operating room. b. Provide discharge instructions about monitoring neurologic status. c. Transport the patient to radiology for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. Arrange to admit the patient to the neurologic unit for 24 hours of observation. - Correct Answer b. Provide discharge instructions about monitoring neurologic status. A patient with a minor head trauma is usually discharged with instructions about neurologic monitoring and the need to return if neurologic status deteriorates. MRI, hospital admission, or surgery are not usually indicated in a patient with a concussion." "A 23-year-old patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Administer IV furosemide (Lasix). b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. c. Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy. d. Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion. - Correct Answer b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. The principal treatment for epidural hematoma is rapid surgery to remove the hematoma and prevent herniation. If intracranial pressure (ICP) is elevated after surgery, furosemide or high-dose barbiturate therapy may be needed, but these will not be of benefit unless the hematoma is removed. Minimal blood loss occurs with head injuries, and transfusion is usually not necessary." "The nurse is admitting a patient with a basal skull fracture. The nurse notes ecchymoses around both eyes and clear drainage from the patients nose. Which admission order should the nurse question? a. Keep the head of bed elevated. b. Insert nasogastric tube to low suction. c. Turn patient side to side every 2 hours d. Apply cold packs intermittently to face. - Correct Answer b. Insert nasogastric tube to low suction. Rhinorrhea may indicate a dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Insertion of a nasogastric tube will increase the risk for infections such as meningitis. Turning the patient, elevating the head, and applying cold packs are appropriate orders." "A college athlete is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after a concussion. Which assessment information will the nurse collect to determine whether a patient is developing postconcussion syndrome? a. Short-term memory b. Muscle coordination c. Glasgow Coma Scale d. Pupil reaction to light - Correct Answer a. Short-term memory Decreased short-term memory is one indication of postconcussion syndrome. The other data may be assessed but are not indications of postconcussion syndrome." "The nurse admitting a patient who has a right frontal lobe tumor would expect the patient may have a. expressive aphasia. b. impaired judgment. c. right-sided weakness. d. difficulty swallowing. - Correct Answer b. impaired judgment. The frontal lobe controls intellectual activities such as judgment. Speech is controlled in the parietal lobe. Weakness and hemiplegia occur on the contralateral side from the tumor. Swallowing is controlled by the brainstem." "Which statement by a 40-year-old patient who is being discharged from the emergency department (ED) after a concussion indicates a need for intervention by the nurse? a. I will return if I feel dizzy or nauseated. b. I am going to drive home and go to bed. c. I do not even remember being in an accident. d. I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for my headache. - Correct Answer b. I am going to drive home and go to bed. Following a head injury, the patient should avoid driving and operating heavy machinery. Retrograde amnesia is common after a concussion. The patient can take acetaminophen for headache and should return if symptoms of increased intracranial pressure such as dizziness or nausea occur." "After having a craniectomy and left anterior fossae incision, a 64-year-old patient has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to decreased level of consciousness and weakness. An appropriate nursing intervention is to a. cluster nursing activities to allow longer rest periods. b. turn and reposition the patient side to side every 2 hours. c. position the bed flat and log roll to reposition the patient. d. perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 4 hours. - Correct Answer d. perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 4 hours. ROM exercises will help prevent the complications of immobility. Patients with anterior craniotomies are positioned with the head elevated. The patient with a craniectomy should not be turned to the operative side. When the patient is weak, clustering nursing activities may lead to more fatigue and weakness." "A 42-year-old patient who has bacterial meningitis is disoriented and anxious. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage family members to remain at the bedside. b. Apply soft restraints to protect the patient from injury. c. Keep the room well-lighted to improve patient orientation. d. Minimize contact with the patient to decrease sensory input. - Correct Answer a. Encourage family members to remain at the bedside. Patients with meningitis and disorientation will be calmed by the presence of someone familiar at the bedside. Restraints should be avoided because they increase agitation and anxiety. The patient requires frequent assessment for complications. The use of touch and a soothing voice will decrease anxiety for most patients. The patient will have photophobia, so the light should be dim." "The public health nurse is planning a program to decrease the incidence of meningitis in adolescents and young adults. Which action ismost important? a. Encourage adolescents and young adults to avoid crowds in the winter. b. Vaccinate 11- and 12-year-old children against Haemophilus influenzae. c. Immunize adolescents and college freshman against Neisseria meningitides. d. Emphasize the importance of hand washing to prevent the spread of infection. - Correct Answer c. Immunize adolescents and college freshman against Neisseria meningitides. The Neisseria meningitides vaccination is recommended for children ages 11 and 12, unvaccinated teens entering high school, and college freshmen. Hand washing may help decrease the spread of bacteria, but it is not as effective as immunization. Vaccination withHaemophilus influenzae is for infants and toddlers. Because adolescents and young adults are in school or the workplace, avoiding crowds is not realistic." "A patient has been admitted with meningococcal meningitis. Which observation by the nurse requires action? a. The bedrails at the head and foot of the bed are both elevated. b. The patient receives a regular diet from the dietary department. c. The lights in the patients room are turned off and the blinds are shut. d. Unlicensed assistive personnel enter the patients room without a mask. - Correct Answer d. Unlicensed assistive personnel enter the patients room without a mask. Meningococcal meningitis is spread by respiratory secretions, so it is important to maintain respiratory isolation as well as standard precautions. Because the patient may be confused and weak, bedrails should be elevated at both the foot and head of the bed. Low light levels in the room decrease pain caused by photophobia. Nutrition is an important aspect of care in a patient with meningitis." "When assessing a 53-year-old patient with bacterial meningitis, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient exhibits nuchal rigidity. b. The patient has a positive Kernigs sign. c. The patients temperature is 101 F (38.3 C). d. The patients blood pressure is 88/42 mm Hg. - Correct Answer d. The patients blood pressure is 88/42 mm Hg Shock is a serious complication of meningitis, and the patients low blood pressure indicates the need for interventions such as fluids or vasopressors. Nuchal rigidity and a positive Kernigs sign are expected with bacterial meningitis. The nurse should intervene to lower the temperature, but this is not as life threatening as the hypotension." "A patient admitted with a diffuse axonal injury has a systemic blood pressure (BP) of 106/52 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 14 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the BP and ICP in the patients record. b. Report the BP and ICP to the health care provider. c. Elevate the head of the patients bed to 60 degrees. d. Continue to monitor the patients vital signs and ICP. - Correct Answer b. Report the BP and ICP to the health care provider. Calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP): (CPP = mean arterial pressure [MAP] ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (systolic blood pressure [SBP] diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). Therefore the (MAP) is 70 and the CPP is 56 mm Hg, which is below the normal of 60 to 100 mm Hg and approaching the level of ischemia and neuronal death. Immediate changes in the patients therapy such as fluid infusion or vasopressor administration are needed to improve the cerebral perfusion pressure. Adjustments in the head elevation should only be done after consulting with the health care provider. Continued monitoring and documentation will also be done, but they are not the first actions that the nurse should take." "After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the increase in intracranial pressure. b. Ensure that the patients neck is in neutral position. c. Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure. d. Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion. - Correct Answer b. Ensure that the patients neck is in neutral position. Because suctioning will cause a transient increase in intracranial pressure, the nurse should initially check for other factors that might be contributing to the increase and observe the patient for a few minutes. Documentation is needed, but this is not the first action. There is no need to notify the health care provider about this expected reaction to suctioning. Propofol is used to control patient anxiety or agitation. There is no indication that anxiety has contributed to the increase in intracranial pressure." "Which patient is most appropriate for the intensive care unit (ICU) charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the medical unit? a. A 45-year-old receiving IV antibiotics for meningococcal meningitis b. A 25-year-old admitted with a skull fracture and craniotomy the previous day c. A 55-year-old who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and is receiving hyperventilation therapy d. A 35-year-old with ICP monitoring after a head injury last week - Correct Answer a. A 45-year-old receiving IV antibiotics for An RN who works on a medical unit will be familiar with administration of IV antibiotics and with meningitis. The postcraniotomy patient, patient with an ICP monitor, and the patient on a ventilator should be assigned to an RN familiar with the care of critically ill patients." "A male patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). He is now complaining of a headache. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. b. Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Send patient for computed tomography (CT). d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally. - Correct Answer a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. The patients low sodium indicates that hyponatremia may be causing the cerebral edema. The nurses first action should be to correct the low sodium level. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) will have minimal effect on the headache because it is caused by cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Drawing ABGs and obtaining a CT scan may provide some useful information, but the low sodium level may lead to seizures unless it is addressed quickly." "After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients who have been admitted with head injuries, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 20-year-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture b. A 30-year-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 c. A 40-year-old patient who lost consciousness for a few seconds after a fall d. A 50-year-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light - Correct Answer d. A 50-year-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light The dilated and nonresponsive pupil may indicate an intracerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. The other patients are not at immediate risk for complications such as herniation." "The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted the previous day with a basilar skull fracture after a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Complaint of severe headache b. Large contusion behind left ear c. Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis d. Temperature of 101.4 F (38.6 C) - Correct Answer d. Temperature of 101.4 F (38.6 C) Patients who have basilar skull fractures are at risk for meningitis, so the elevated temperature should be reported to the health care provider. The other findings are typical of a patient with a basilar skull fracture." "After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patients intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Pulse 102 beats/min b. Temperature 101.6 F c. Intracranial pressure 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure 90 mm Hg - Correct Answer b. Temperature 101.6 F Infection is a serious consideration with ICP monitoring, especially with intraventricular catheters. The temperature indicates the need for antibiotics or removal of the monitor. The ICP, arterial pressure, and apical pulse are all borderline high but require only ongoing monitoring at this time." "The charge nurse observes an inexperienced staff nurse caring for a patient who has had a craniotomy for resection of a brain tumor. Which action by the inexperienced nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene? a. The staff nurse assesses neurologic status every hour. b. The staff nurse elevates the head of the bed to 30 degrees. c. The staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours. d. The staff nurse administers an analgesic before turning the patient. - Correct Answer c. The staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours. Suctioning increases intracranial pressure, and should only be done when the patients respiratory condition indicates it is needed. The other actions by the staff nurse are appropriate." "A 68-year-old male patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after being found unconscious on the bathroom floor by his spouse. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Check oxygen saturation. b. Assess pupil reaction to light. c. Verify Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. d. Palpate the head for hematoma or bony irregularities - Correct Answer a. Check oxygen saturation. Airway patency and breathing are the most vital functions, and should be assessed first. The neurologic assessments should be accomplished next and additional assessment after that." "A patient has increased intracranial pressure and a ventriculostomy after a head injury. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who regularly work in the intensive care unit? a. Document intracranial pressure every hour. b. Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours. c. Check capillary blood glucose level every 6 hours. d. Monitor cerebrospinal fluid color and volume hourly. - Correct Answer c. Check capillary blood glucose level every 6 hours. Experienced UAP can obtain capillary blood glucose levels when they have been trained and evaluated in the skill. Monitoring and documentation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) color and intracranial pressure (ICP) require registered nurse (RN)level education and scope of practice. Although repositioning patients is frequently delegated to UAP, repositioning a patient with a ventriculostomy is complex and should be supervised by the RN." "Which information about a 30-year-old patient who is hospitalized after a traumatic brain injury requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg b. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage of 25 mL/hour c. Pressure of oxygen in brain tissue (PbtO2) is 14 mm Hg d. Cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia at 128 beats/minute - Correct Answer c. Pressure of oxygen in brain tissue (PbtO2) is 14 mm Hg The PbtO2 should be 20 to 40 mm Hg. Lower levels indicate brain ischemia. An intracranial pressure (ICP) of 15 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal. CSF is produced at a rate of 20 to 30 mL/hour. The reason for the sinus tachycardia should be investigated, but the elevated heart rate is not as concerning as the decrease in PbtO2." "The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury and fractured right arm after being assaulted. Which assessment information requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. The apical pulse is slightly irregular. b. The patient complains of a headache. c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. d. The blood pressure (BP) increases to 140/62 mm Hg. - Correct Answer c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. The change in level of consciousness (LOC) is an indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and suggests that action by the nurse is needed to prevent complications. The change in BP should be monitored but is not an indicator of a need for immediate nursing action. Headache and a slightly irregular apical pulse are not unusual in a patient after a head injury." "32. Which finding for a patient who has a head injury should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Intracranial pressure is 16 mm Hg when patient is turned. b. Pale yellow urine output is 1200 mL over the last 2 hours. c. LICOX brain tissue oxygenation catheter shows PbtO2 of 38 mm Hg. d. Ventriculostomy drained 40 mL of cerebrospinal fluid in the last 2 hours. - Correct Answer b. Pale yellow urine output is 1200 mL over the last 2 hours. The high urine output indicates that diabetes insipidus may be developing, and interventions to prevent dehydration need to be rapidly implemented. The other data do not indicate a need for any change in therapy." "When admitting a 42-year-old patient with a possible brain injury after a car accident to the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. b. The patients blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg. c. The patient is unable to remember the accident. d. The patient complains of a severe dull headache. - Correct Answer a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. The use of anticoagulants increases the risk for intracranial hemorrhage and should be immediately reported. The other information would not be unusual in a patient with a head injury who had just arrived in the ED." "A patient being admitted with bacterial meningitis has a temperature of 102.5 F (39.2 C) and a severe headache. Which order for collaborative intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Administer ceftizoxime (Cefizox) 1 g IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg PO. c. Use a cooling blanket to lower temperature. d. Swab the nasopharyngeal mucosa for cultures. - Correct Answer d. Swab the nasopharyngeal mucosa for cultures. Antibiotic therapy should be instituted rapidly in bacterial meningitis, but cultures must be done before antibiotics are started. As soon as the cultures are done, the antibiotic should be started. Hypothermia therapy and acetaminophen administration are appropriate but can be started after the other actions are implemented." "A patient with possible viral meningitis is admitted to the nursing unit after lumbar puncture was performed in the emergency department. Which action prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees. b. Restrict oral fluids to 1000 mL daily. c. Administer ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1 g IV every 12 hours. d. Give ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours as needed for headache. - Correct Answer b. Restrict oral fluids to 1000 mL daily. The patient with meningitis has increased fluid needs, so oral fluids should be encouraged. The other actions are appropriate. Slight elevation of the head of the bed will decrease headache without causing leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the lumbar puncture site. Antibiotics should be administered until bacterial meningitis is ruled out by the cerebrospinal fluid analysis." "Which action will the public health nurse take to reduce the incidence of epidemic encephalitis in a community? a. Encourage the use of effective insect repellents during mosquito season. b. Remind patients that most cases of viral encephalitis can be cared for at home. c. Teach about the importance of prophylactic antibiotics after exposure to encephalitis. d. Arrange for screening of school-age children for West Nile virus during the school year. - Correct Answer a. Encourage the use of effective insect repellents during mosquito season. Epidemic encephalitis is usually spread by mosquitoes and ticks. Use of insect repellent is effective in reducing risk. Encephalitis frequently requires that the patient be hospitalized in an intensive care unit during the initial stages. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not used to prevent encephalitis because most encephalitis is viral. West Nile virus is most common in adults over age 50 during the summer and early fall." "To assess for functional deficits, which question will the nurse ask a patient who has been admitted for treatment of a benign occipital lobe tumor? a. Do you have difficulty in hearing? b. Are you experiencing visual problems? c. Are you having any trouble with your balance? d. Have you developed any weakness on one side? - Correct Answer b. Are you experiencing visual problems? Because the occipital lobe is responsible for visual reception, the patient with a tumor in this area is likely to have problems with vision. The other questions will be better for assessing function of the temporal lobe, cerebellum, and frontal lobe." "During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns that a patient with a head injury has decorticate posturing to noxious stimulation. Which positioning shown in the accompanying figure will the nurse expect to observe? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 - Correct Answer a. 1 With decorticate posturing, the patient exhibits internal rotation and adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows, wrists, and fingers. The other illustrations are of decerebrate, mixed decorticate/decerebrate posturing, and opisthotonic posturing." "Which is the correct point on the accompanying figure where the nurse will assess for ecchymosis when admitting a patient with a basilar skull fracture? a. A b. B c. C d. D - Correct Answer d. D Point D, the periorbital and postauricular areas, should be selected. Battles sign and periorbital ecchymoses are associated with basilar skull fracture." A positive Romberg test indicates that the patient has difficulty maintaining balance with the eyes closed. The Romberg does not test for orientation, thermoregulation, or discomfort." "The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient with a possible seizure disorder about which test? a. Cerebral angiography b. Evoked potential studies c. Electromyography (EMG) d. Electroencephalography (EEG) - Correct Answer d. Electroencephalography (EEG) Seizure disorders are usually assessed using EEG testing. Evoked potential is used for diagnosing problems with the visual or auditory systems. Cerebral angiography is used to diagnose vascular problems. EMG is used to evaluate electrical innervation to skeletal muscle." "Which nursing action will be included in the care for a patient who has had cerebral angiography? a. Monitor for headache and photophobia. b. Keep patient NPO until gag reflex returns. c. Check pulse and blood pressure frequently. d. Assess orientation to person, place, and time. - Correct Answer c. Check pulse and blood pressure frequently. Because a catheter is inserted into an artery (such as the femoral artery) during cerebral angiography, the nurse should assess for bleeding after this procedure. The other nursing assessments are not necessary after angiography." "Which equipment will the nurse obtain to assess vibration sense in a diabetic patient who has peripheral nerve dysfunction? a. Sharp pin b. Tuning fork c. Reflex hammer d. Calibrated compass - Correct Answer b. Tuning fork Vibration sense is testing by touching the patient with a vibrating tuning fork. The other equipment is needed for testing of pain sensation, reflexes, and two-point discrimination." "An unconscious patient with a traumatic head injury has a blood pressure of 130/76 mm Hg, and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. The nurse will calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) as ____ mm Hg. - Correct Answer 74 Calculate the CPP: (CPP = mean arterial pressure [MAP] ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (systolic blood pressure [SBP] diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). The MAP is 94. The CPP is 74." "After a patient experienced a brief episode of tinnitus, diplopia, and dysarthria with no residual effects, the nurse anticipates teaching the patient about a. cerebral aneurysm clipping. b. heparin intravenous infusion. c. oral low-dose aspirin therapy. d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). - Correct Answer c. oral low-dose aspirin therapy. The patients symptoms are consistent with transient ischemic attack (TIA), and drugs that inhibit platelet aggregation are prescribed after a TIA to prevent stroke. Continuous heparin infusion is not routinely used after TIA or with acute ischemic stroke. The patients symptoms are not consistent with a cerebral aneurysm. tPA is used only for acute ischemic stroke, not for TIA." "A 68-year-old patient is being admitted with a possible stroke. Which information from the assessment indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed aspirin? a. The patient has dysphasia. b. The patient has atrial fibrillation. c. The patient reports that symptoms began with a severe headache. d. The patient has a history of brief episodes of right-sided hemiplegia. - Correct Answer c. The patient reports that symptoms began with a severe headache. A sudden onset headache is typical of a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and aspirin is contraindicated. Atrial fibrillation, dysphasia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA) are not contraindications to aspirin use, so the nurse can administer the aspirin" Because elevated BP may be a protective response to maintain cerebral perfusion, antihypertensive therapy is recommended only if mean arterial pressure (MAP) is >130 mm Hg or systolic pressure is >220 mm Hg. Fluid intake should be 1500 to 2000 mL daily to maintain cerebral blood flow. The head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees, unless the patient has symptoms of poor tissue perfusion. tPA may be administered if the patient meets the other criteria for tPA use" "A 56-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department with hemiparesis and dysarthria that started 2 hours previously, and health records show a history of several transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). The nurse anticipates preparing the patient for a. surgical endarterectomy. b. transluminal angioplasty. c. intravenous heparin administration. d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) infusion. - Correct Answer d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) infusion. The patients history and clinical manifestations suggest an acute ischemic stroke and a patient who is seen within 4.5 hours of stroke onset is likely to receive tPA (after screening with a CT scan). Heparin administration in the emergency phase is not indicated. Emergent carotid transluminal angioplasty or endarterectomy is not indicated for the patient who is having an acute ischemic stroke." "A female patient who had a stroke 24 hours ago has expressive aphasia. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication. An appropriate nursing intervention to help the patient communicate is to a. ask questions that the patient can answer with yes or no. b. develop a list of words that the patient can read and practice reciting. c. have the patient practice her facial and tongue exercises with a mirror. d. prevent embarrassing the patient by answering for her if she does not respond. - Correct Answer a. ask questions that the patient can answer with yes or no. Communication will be facilitated and less frustrating to the patient when questions that require a yes or no response are used. When the language areas of the brain are injured, the patient might not be able to read or recite words, which will frustrate the patient without improving communication. Expressive aphasia is caused by damage to the language areas of the brain, not by the areas that control the motor aspects of speech. The nurse should allow time for the patient to respond." "For a patient who had a right hemisphere stroke the nurse establishes a nursing diagnosis of a. risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness. b. impaired physical mobility related to right-sided hemiplegia. c. impaired verbal communication related to speech-language deficits. d. ineffective coping related to depression and distress about disability. - Correct Answer a. risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness. The patient with right-sided brain damage typically denies any deficits and has poor impulse control, leading to risk for injury when the patient attempts activities such as transferring from a bed to a chair. Right-sided brain damage causes left hemiplegia. Left-sided brain damage typically causes language deficits. Left-sided brain damage is associated with depression and distress about the disability." "When caring for a patient with a new right-sided homonymous hemianopsia resulting from a stroke, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Apply an eye patch to the right eye. b. Approach the patient from the right side. c. Place objects needed on the patients left side. d. Teach the patient that the left visual deficit will resolve. - Correct Answer c. Place objects needed on the patients left side. During the acute period, the nurse should place objects on the patients unaffected side. Because there is a visual defect in the right half of each eye, an eye patch is not appropriate. The patient should be approached from the left side. The visual deficit may not resolve, although the patient can learn to compensate for the defect." "The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to impaired self-feeding ability for a left-handed patient with left-sided hemiplegia. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Provide a wide variety of food choices. b. Provide oral care before and after meals. c. Assist the patient to eat with the right hand. d. Teach the patient the chin-tuck technique. - Correct Answer c. Assist the patient to eat with the right hand. Because the nursing diagnosis indicates that the patients imbalanced nutrition is related to the left-sided hemiplegia, the appropriate interventions will focus on teaching the patient to use the right hand for self-feeding. The other interventions are appropriate for patients with other etiologies for the imbalanced nutrition." "A 40-year-old patient has a ruptured cerebral aneurysm and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which intervention will be included in the care plan? a. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression stockings. b. Assist to dangle on edge of bed and assess for dizziness. c. Encourage patient to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours. d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway to prevent airway obstruction. - Correct Answer a. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression stockings The patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage usually has minimal activity to prevent cerebral vasospasm or further bleeding and is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Activities such as coughing and sitting up that might increase intracranial pressure (ICP) or decrease cerebral blood flow are avoided. Because there is no indication that the patient is unconscious, an oropharyngeal airway is inappropriate." "A 47-year-old patient will attempt oral feedings for the first time since having a stroke. The nurse should assess the gag reflex and then a. order a varied pureed diet. b. assess the patients appetite. c. assist the patient into a chair. d. offer the patient a sip of juice. - Correct Answer c. assist the patient into a chair. The patient should be as upright as possible before attempting feeding to make swallowing easier and decrease aspiration risk. To assess swallowing ability, the nurse should initially offer water or ice to the patient. Pureed diets are not recommended because the texture is too smooth. The patient may have a poor appetite, but the oral feeding should be attempted regardless." "A male patient who has right-sided weakness after a stroke is making progress in learning to use the left hand for feeding and other activities. The nurse observes that when the patients wife is visiting, she feeds and dresses him. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Interrupted family processes related to effects of illness of a family member b. Situational low self-esteem related to increasing dependence on spouse for care c. Disabled family coping related to inadequate understanding by patients spouse d. Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements related to hemiplegia and aphasia - Correct Answer c. Disabled family coping related to inadequate understanding by patients spouse The information supports the diagnosis of disabled family coping because the wife does not understand the rehabilitation program. There are no data supporting low self-esteem, and the patient is attempting independence. The data do not support an interruption in family processes because this may be a typical pattern for the couple. There is no indication that the patient has impaired nutrition" "Several weeks after a stroke, a 50-year-old male patient has impaired awareness of bladder fullness, resulting in urinary incontinence. Which nursing intervention will be best to include in the initial plan for an effective bladder training program? a. Limit fluid intake to 1200 mL daily to reduce urine volume. b. Assist the patient onto the bedside commode every 2 hours. c. Perform intermittent catheterization after each voiding to check for residual urine. d. Use an external condom catheter to protect the skin and prevent embarrassment. - Correct Answer b. Assist the patient onto the bedside commode every 2 hours. Developing a regular voiding schedule will prevent incontinence and may increase patient awareness of a full bladder. A 1200 mL fluid restriction may lead to dehydration. Intermittent catheterization and use of a condom catheter are appropriate in the acute phase of stroke, but should not be considered solutions for long-term management because of the risks for urinary tract infection (UTI) and skin breakdown." "A 72-year-old patient who has a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) has an order for aspirin 160 mg daily. When the nurse is administering medications, the patient says, I dont need the aspirin today. I dont have a fever. Which action should the nurse take? a. Document that the aspirin was refused by the patient. b. Tell the patient that the aspirin is used to prevent a fever. c. Explain that the aspirin is ordered to decrease stroke risk. d. Call the health care provider to clarify the medication order. - Correct Answer c. Explain that the aspirin is ordered to decrease stroke risk. Aspirin is ordered to prevent stroke in patients who have experienced TIAs. Documentation of the patients refusal to take the medication is an inadequate response by the nurse. There is no need to clarify the order with the health care provider. The aspirin is not ordered to prevent aches and pains." "A patient in the clinic reports a recent episode of dysphasia and left-sided weakness at home that resolved after 2 hours. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. alteplase (tPA). b. aspirin (Ecotrin). c. warfarin (Coumadin). d. nimodipine (Nimotop). - Correct Answer b. aspirin (Ecotrin). Following a transient ischemic attack (TIA), patients typically are started on medications such as aspirin to inhibit platelet function and decrease stroke risk. tPA is used for acute ischemic stroke. Coumadin is usually used for patients with atrial fibrillation. Nimodipine is used to prevent cerebral vasospasm after a subarachnoid hemorrhage." "A 58-year-old patient with a left-brain stroke suddenly bursts into tears when family members visit. The nurse should a. use a calm voice to ask the patient to stop the crying behavior. b. explain to the family that depression is normal following a stroke. c. have the family members leave the patient alone for a few minutes. d. teach the family that emotional outbursts are common after strokes. - Correct Answer d. teach the family that emotional outbursts are common after strokes. Patients who have left-sided brain stroke are prone to emotional outbursts that are not necessarily related to the emotional state of the patient. Depression after a stroke is common, but the suddenness of the patients outburst suggests that depression is not the major cause of the behavior. The family should stay with the patient. The crying is not within the patients control and asking the patient to stop will lead to embarrassment." "Which stroke risk factor for a 48-year-old male patient in the clinic is most important for the nurse to address? a. The patient is 25 pounds above the ideal weight. b. The patient drinks a glass of red wine with dinner daily. c. The patients usual blood pressure (BP) is 170/94 mm Hg. d. The patient works at a desk and relaxes by watching television. - Correct Answer c. The patients usual blood pressure (BP) is 170/94 mm Hg. Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor. People who drink more than 1 (for women) or 2 (for men) alcoholic beverages a day may increase risk for hypertension. Physical inactivity and obesity contribute to stroke risk but not as much as hypertensio" "A patient in the emergency department with sudden-onset right-sided weakness is diagnosed with an intracerebral hemorrhage. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patients speech is difficult to understand. b. The patients blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg. c. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension. d. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin). - Correct Answer d. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin). The use of warfarin probably contributed to the intracerebral bleeding and remains a risk factor for further bleeding. Administration of vitamin K is needed to reverse the effects of the warfarin, especially if the patient is to have surgery to correct the bleeding. The history of hypertension is a risk factor for the patient but has no immediate effect on the patients care. The BP of 144/90 indicates the need for ongoing monitoring but not for any immediate change in therapy. Slurred speech is consistent with a left-sided stroke, and no change in therapy is indicated." "A patient with left-sided weakness that started 60 minutes earlier is admitted to the emergency department and diagnostic tests are ordered. Which test should be done first? a. Complete blood count (CBC) b. Chest radiograph (Chest x-ray) c. 12-Lead electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan - Correct Answer d. Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan Rapid screening with a noncontrast CT scan is needed before administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), which must be given within 4.5 hours of the onset of clinical manifestations of the stroke. The sooner the tPA is given, the less brain injury. The other diagnostic tests give information about possible causes of the stroke and do not need to be completed as urgently as the CT scan." "Nurses in change-of-shift report are discussing the care of a patient with a stroke who has progressively increasing weakness and decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). Which nursing diagnosis do they determine has thehighest priority for the patient? a. Impaired physical mobility related to weakness b. Disturbed sensory perception related to brain injury c. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility d. Risk for aspiration related to inability to protect airway - Correct Answer d. Risk for aspiration related to inability to protect airway Protection of the airway is the priority of nursing care for a patient having an acute stroke. The other diagnoses are also appropriate, but interventions to prevent aspiration are the priority at this time." "Which information about the patient who has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of having a stiff neck. b. The patients blood pressure (BP) is 90/50 mm Hg. c. The patient reports a severe and unrelenting headache. d. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) report shows red blood cells (RBCs). - Correct Answer b. The patients blood pressure (BP) is 90/50 mm Hg. To prevent cerebral vasospasm and maintain cerebral perfusion, blood pressure needs to be maintained at a level higher than 90 mm Hg systolic after a subarachnoid hemorrhage. A low BP or drop in BP indicates a need to administer fluids and/or vasopressors to increase the BP. An ongoing headache, RBCs in the CSF, and a stiff neck are all typical clinical manifestations of a subarachnoid hemorrhage and do not need to be rapidly communicated to the health care provider" "The nurse is caring for a patient who has been experiencing stroke symptoms for 60 minutes. Which action can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assess the patients gag and cough reflexes. b. Determine when the stroke symptoms began. c. Administer the prescribed short-acting insulin. d. Infuse the prescribed IV metoprolol (Lopressor). - Correct Answer c. Administer the prescribed short-acting insulin. Administration of subcutaneous medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. The other actions require more education and scope of practice and should be done by the registered nurse (RN)." "After receiving change-of-shift report on the following four patients, which patient should the nurse see first? a. A 60-year-old patient with right-sided weakness who has an infusion of tPA prescribed b. A 50-year-old patient who has atrial fibrillation and a new order for warfarin (Coumadin) c. A 40-year-old patient who experienced a transient ischemic attack yesterday who has a dose of aspirin due d. A 30-year-old patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage 2 days ago who has nimodipine (Nimotop) scheduled - Correct Answer a. A 60-year-old patient with right-sided weakness who has an infusion of tPA prescribed tPA needs to be infused within the first few hours after stroke symptoms start in order to be effective in minimizing brain injury. The other medications should also be given as quickly as possible, but timing of the medications is not as critical." "The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned after having left carotid artery angioplasty and stenting. Which assessment information is of most concern to the nurse? a. The pulse rate is 102 beats/min. b. The patient has difficulty speaking. c. The blood pressure is 144/86 mm Hg. d. There are fine crackles at the lung bases. - Correct Answer b. The patient has difficulty speaking. Small emboli can occur during carotid artery angioplasty and stenting, and the aphasia indicates a possible stroke during the procedure. Slightly elevated pulse rate and blood pressure are not unusual because of anxiety associated with the procedure. Fine crackles at the lung bases may indicate atelectasis caused by immobility during the procedure. The nurse should have the patient take some deep breaths." "A 70-year-old female patient with left-sided hemiparesis arrives by ambulance to the emergency department. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the blood pressure. b. Send the patient for a computed tomography (CT) scan. c. Check the respiratory rate and effort. d. Assess the Glasgow Coma Scale score. - Correct Answer c. Check the respiratory rate and effort. The initial nursing action should be to assess the airway and take any needed actions to ensure a patent airway. The other activities should take place quickly after the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) are completed." "The home health nurse is caring for an 81-year-old who had a stroke 2 months ago. Based on information shown in the accompanying figure from the history, physical assessment, and physical therapy/occupational therapy, which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority for this patient? a. Impaired transfer ability b. Risk for caregiver role strain c. Ineffective health maintenance d. Risk for unstable blood glucose level - Correct Answer b. Risk for caregiver role strain The spouses household and patient care responsibilities, in combination with chronic illnesses, indicate a high risk for caregiver role strain. The nurse should further assess the situation and take appropriate actions. The data about the control of the patients diabetes indicat

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Neuro Exam Questions and
Correct Answers – 100%
Correct and Verified
Because the cell bodies of lower motor neurons are located in the spinal cord, damage to the
neuron will decrease motor activity of the affected muscles. Spasticity and hyperactive
reflexes are caused by upper motor neuron damage. Sensation is not impacted by motor
neuron lesions."


"The nurse performing a focused assessment of left posterior temporal lobe functions will
assess the patient for
a. sensation on the left side of the body.
b. voluntary movements on the right side.
c. reasoning and problem-solving abilities.
d. understanding written and oral language. - Correct Answer d. understanding written and
oral language.


The posterior temporal lobe integrates the visual and auditory input for language
comprehension. Reasoning and problem solving are functions of the anterior frontal lobe.
Sensation on the left side of the body is located in the right postcentral gyrus. Voluntary
movement on the right side is controlled in the left precentral gyrus."


"Propranolol (Inderal), a b-adrenergic blocker that inhibits sympathetic nervous system
activity, is prescribed for a patient who has extreme anxiety about public speaking. The nurse
monitors the patient for
a. dry mouth.
b. bradycardia.
c. constipation.
d. urinary retention. - Correct Answer b. bradycardia


Inhibition of the fight or flight response leads to a decreased heart rate. Dry mouth,
constipation, and urinary retention are associated with peripheral nervous system blockade."


"To assess the functioning of the trigeminal and facial nerves (CNs V and VII), the nurse
should
a. shine a light into the patients pupil.

,b. check for unilateral eyelid drooping.
c. touch a cotton wisp strand to the cornea.
d. have the patient read a magazine or book. - Correct Answer a. shine a light into the patients
pupil.


The trigeminal and facial nerves are responsible for the corneal reflex. The optic nerve is
tested by having the patient read a Snellen chart or a newspaper. Assessment of pupil
response to light and ptosis are used to check function of the oculomotor nerve."


"Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with impaired
functioning of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and the vagus nerve (CN X)?
a. Withhold oral fluid or foods.
b. Provide highly seasoned foods.
c. Insert an oropharyngeal airway.
d. Apply artificial tears every hour. - Correct Answer a. Withhold oral fluid or foods.


The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves innervate the pharynx and control the gag reflex. A
patient with impaired function of these nerves is at risk for aspiration. An oral airway may be
needed when a patient is unconscious and unable to maintain the airway, but it will not
decrease aspiration risk. Taste and eye blink are controlled by the facial nerve."


"An unconscious male patient has just arrived in the emergency department after a head
injury caused by a motorcycle crash. Which order should the nurse question?
a. Obtain x-rays of the skull and spine.
b. Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture.
c. Send for computed tomography (CT) scan.
d. Perform neurologic checks every 15 minutes. - Correct Answer b. Prepare the patient for
lumbar puncture.


When admitting an acutely confused 20-year-old patient with a head injury, which action
should the nurse take?
a. Ask family members about the patients health history.
b. Ask leading questions to assist in obtaining health data.
c. Wait until the patient is better oriented to ask questions.
d. Obtain only the physiologic neurologic assessment data. - Correct Answer a. Ask family
members about the patients health history.


When admitting a patient who is likely to be a poor historian, the nurse should obtain health
history information from others who have knowledge about the patients health. Waiting until

,the patient is oriented or obtaining only physiologic data will result in incomplete assessment
data, which could adversely affect decision making about treatment. Asking leading
questions may result in inaccurate or incomplete information."


"Which finding would the nurse expect when assessing the legs of a patient who has a lower
motor neuron lesion?
a. Spasticity
b. Flaccidity
c. No sensation
d. Hyperactive reflexes - Correct Answer b. Flaccidity
After a head injury, the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding and increased
intracranial pressure, which could lead to herniation of the brain if a lumbar puncture is
performed. The other orders are appropriate."


"A patient with suspected meningitis is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Before the
procedure, the nurse will plan to
a. enforce NPO status for 4 hours.
b. transfer the patient to radiology.
c. administer a sedative medication.
d. help the patient to a lateral position. - Correct Answer d. help the patient to a lateral
position.


For a lumbar puncture, the patient lies in the lateral recumbent position. The procedure does
not usually require a sedative, is done in the patient room, and has no risk for aspiration."


"During the neurologic assessment, the patient is unable to respond verbally to the nurse but
cooperates with the nurses directions to move his hands and feet. The nurse will suspect
a. cerebellar injury.
b. a brainstem lesion.
c. frontal lobe damage.
d. a temporal lobe lesion. - Correct Answer c. frontal lobe damage.


Expressive speech is controlled by Brocas area in the frontal lobe. The temporal lobe
contains Wernickes area, which is responsible for receptive speech. The cerebellum and
brainstem do not affect higher cognitive functions such as speech."


"A 45-year-old patient has a dysfunction of the cerebellum. The nurse will plan interventions
to
a. prevent falls.

, b. stabilize mood.
c. avoid aspiration.
d. improve memory. - Correct Answer a. prevent falls.


Because functions of the cerebellum include coordination and balance, the patient with
dysfunction is at risk for falls. The cerebellum does not affect memory, mood, or swallowing
ability.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1339-1340"


"Which nursing diagnosis is expected to be appropriate for a patient who has a positive
Romberg test?
a. Acute pain
b. Risk for falls
c. Acute confusion
d. Ineffective thermoregulation - Correct Answer b. Risk for falls


"Which information about a 76-year-old patient is most important for the admitting nurse to
report to the patients health care provider?
a. Triceps reflex response graded at 1/5
b. Unintended weight loss of 20 pounds
c. 10 mm Hg orthostatic drop in systolic blood pressure
d. Patient complaint of chronic difficulty in falling asleep - Correct Answer b. Unintended
weight loss of 20 pounds


Although changes in appetite are normal with aging, a 20-pound weight loss requires further
investigation. Orthostatic drops in blood pressure, changes in sleep patterns, and slowing of
reflexes are normal changes in aging"


"The charge nurse is observing a new staff nurse who is assessing a patient with a traumatic
spinal cord injury for sensation. Which action indicates a need for further teaching of the new
nurse about neurologic assessment?
a. The new nurse tests for light touch before testing for pain.
b. The new nurse has the patient close the eyes during testing.
c. The new nurse asks the patient if the instrument feels sharp.
d. The new nurse uses an irregular pattern to test for intact touch. - Correct Answer c. The
new nurse asks the patient if the instrument feels sharp.


When performing a sensory assessment, the nurse should not provide verbal clues. The other
actions by the new nurse are appropriate."

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