EMT FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE GRADE A+

EMT FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE GRADE A+ "Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? A. Emergency preparedness plan B. Resource management C. Central deployment D. Tauma system - Correct Answer B. Resource management" "Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? A. United States Health Services Agency (HSA) B. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) C. National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) - Correct Answer D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)" "Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? A. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital B. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital C. To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene D. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care - Correct Answer A. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital" "What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? A. Emergency Medical Technician B. Emergency Ambulance Driver C. Advanced EMT D. Emergency Medical Responder - Correct Answer A. Emergency Medical Technician" "What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? A. Cardiac care responder B. Emergency Medical Responder C. EMT D. Emergency Medical Dispatcher - Correct Answer B. Emergency Medical Responder" Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? A. System effectiveness management B. Total quality system C. Quality improvement D. Process Improvement Plan (PIP) - Correct Answer C. Quality improvement" "In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? A. U.S. Department of the Interior B. U.S. Department of Health Services C. U.S. Department of Transportation D. U.S. Department of Homeland Security - Correct Answer C. U.S. Department of Transportation" "What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? A. Emergency Medical Responder B. Paramedic C. Emergency Medical Technician D. Advanced EMT - Correct Answer B. Paramedic" "What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body substance isolation precautions? A. Exposure-control plan B. Harm-reduction strategy C. Personal protective equipment D. Infection-control plan - Correct Answer C. Personal protective equipment" "Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? A. A study of the origins of infection and disease B. An organism that causes infection and disease C. A medication with a harmful effect D. An immunity developed after an exposure - Correct Answer B. An organism that causes infection and disease" "Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning? A. Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves B. In cases where soap and water and alcohol- based hand cleaners are not immediately available, bleach wipes should be used C. If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient D. Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously - Correct Answer C. If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient" "Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment? A. Hepatitis A B. Tuberculosis C. AIDS D. Hepatitis B - Correct Answer D. Hepatitis B" "Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? A. HIV positive needle sticks have a 30 percent infection rate B. Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS C. The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than hepatitis B D. HIV positive needle sticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate - Correct Answer D. HIV positive needle sticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate" "What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? A. Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens Act B. Ryan White CARE act C. Communicable Disease Notification Act D. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 - Correct Answer B. Ryan White CARE act" "What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? A. Gloves B. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles C. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown D. Gloves and N-95 mask - Correct Answer C. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown" "Which of the following terms is best defined as "a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?" A. Homeostasis B. Eustress C. Distress D. Stress - Correct Answer D. Stress" "Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT's health and well-being? A. Eustress B. Distress C. Megastress D. Hyperstress - Correct Answer A. Eustress" "The term burnout is also known as a(n) ____________ stress reaction A. Delayed B. Cumulative C. Acute D. Post-traumatic - Correct Answer B. Cumulative" "Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n). A. Severe stress reaction B. Acute stress reaction C. Delayed stress reaction D. Cumulative stress reaction - Correct Answer C. Delayed stress reaction" "Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers kneel, curl the patient to their chest, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher? A. Draw-street method B. Power lift C. Direct carry D. Direct ground lift - Correct Answer D. Direct ground lift" "When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using which of the following? A. Power grip B. Vise grip C. Lock grip D. Power lift - Correct Answer A. Power grip" "Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient? A. your physical limitations B. The weight of the patient C. Communications D. All of the above - Correct Answer D. All of the above" "Which of the following is the correct position of an EMT's feet when lifting? A. As wide apart as possible B. Two feet apart C. As close together as possible D. Shoulder-width apart - Correct Answer D. Shoulder-width apart" "Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true? A. Position your feet close together B. Use your legs to lift C. Twist your torso while lifting D. Use your back to lift - Correct Answer B. Use your legs to lift" "Which of the following should you do when reaching for something? A. Avoid reaching more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body B. Avoid twisting C. Keep your back in a locked- in position D. All of the above - Correct Answer D. All of the above" "Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? A. Unconditional consent B. Conscious consent C. Expressed consent D. Implied consent - Correct Answer C. Expressed consent" "Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT? A. Scope of practice B. Professional standards C. Legal standards of practice D. Protocols and standing orders - Correct Answer A. Scope of practice" "The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT? A. Scope of practice B. Duty to act C. Standard of practice D. Protocols and standing orders - Correct Answer A. Scope of practice" "Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? A. Scope of practice B. Professional standards C. Standard of practice D. Protocols and standing orders - Correct Answer C. Standard of practice" "Your patient is a 40 year old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient? A. Expressed consent B. Consent for mentally incompetent adults C. Implied consent D. Consent for treatment for minor emergencies - Correct Answer C. Implied consent" "Your patient is a 10 year old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment? A. Get consent from the patient's 15 year old sister, who is at the scene B. Act on implied consent C. Call the patient's mother at work D. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor - Correct Answer C. Call the patient's mother at work" "Your respond to a middle school for a 12 year old male patient who has been hit by a car. You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the parents? A. Informed consent B. Healthcare proxy C. In loco parentis D. Res ipsa loquitur - Correct Answer C. In loco parentis" "The EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following? A. Standard of care B. Scope of practice C. Duty to act D. Legal responsibility - Correct Answer C. Duty to act" "You arrive on the scene of a 55 year old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do? A. Provide emergency care under implied consent B. Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law C. Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service D. Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help - Correct Answer A. Provide emergency care under implied consent" "In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest? A. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician B. Family members request that nothing be done C. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes D. All of the above - Correct Answer A. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician" "Your patient is a 45 year old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seem short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs? A. Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the paitent's hose but he is now refusing care B. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed C. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem D. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital - Correct Answer D. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital" "You are on the scene with a 72 year old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next? A. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient B. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care C. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness D. Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation - Correct Answer B. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care" "If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision? A. Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing B. Consult with the patient's physician C. Withhold resuscitative measures D. Begin resuscitative measures - Correct Answer D. Begin resuscitative measures" "Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT? A. An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help B. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician C. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff D. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic - Correct Answer C. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff" "Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. They evaluate a 50 year old male patient who passed out and cut his upper lip. The EMTs examine the patient and his vital signs are normal. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to the urgent care clinic for stitches for his lip rather than waiting all night in the emergency department as a nonemergency patient. The patient signs the EMS refusal form. The patient decides to see his own doctor the next morning but dies at his house from sudden cardiac arrest an hour later. Which of the following statements is true? A. The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form B. The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation C. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died D. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical cond - Correct Answer B. The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation" "An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements in true? A. The EMT is negligent because the patient died B. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping C. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act D. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment - Correct Answer C. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to ac" "Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan laws? A. An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care off-duty B. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency C. A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if necessary, when providing emergency care off-duty D. An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good Samaritan law - Correct Answer B. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency" "Which of the following requires training, polices, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information? A. COBRA B.EMTALA C.HIPAA D. HIAPA - Correct Answer C.HIPAA" "While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following? A. HIPAA violation B. Degradation of character C. Slander D. Libel - Correct Answer D. Libel" "You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the scene, you are approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He tells you that if you will take care of her first, he will ensure you get the promotion you are up for. This becomes what type of decision for you as an EMT? A. Medical B. Ethical C. Financial D. Legal - Correct Answer B. Ethical" "While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the patient's vacation home, which of the following actions may interfere with the investigation of a crime scene? A. Using the patient's phone B. Moving the patient C. Using the bathroom D. All of the above - Correct Answer D. All of the above" "Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime scene? A. Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony B. Preserving evidence C. Providing patient care D. Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene - Correct Answer C. Providing patient care" "Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene? A. Your experience as an EMT B. Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on scene C. How you gained access to the scene D. What route you took when responding to the scene - Correct Answer C. How you gained access to the scene" "You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? A. Medical history identifier B. Medical identification device C. Driver's license D. On call medical director - Correct Answer B. Medical identification device" "What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? A. Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes B. The terms are synonymous C. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function D. Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior - Correct Answer C. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function" "With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: A. A modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural B. Added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning C. The foundation of a word or term D. The combination of any two or more whole words - Correct Answer B. Added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning" "The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: A. Right medial B. Right upper C. Left lower D. Left upper - Correct Answer A. Right medial" "The term lateral is best defined as: A. Toward the middle of B. To the back of C. To the side D. Under the arms - Correct Answer C. To the side" "What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body? A. Posterior B. Caudal C. Anterior D. Dorsal - Correct Answer C. Anterior" "The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its _________ aspect. A. Medial B. Axillary C.Inferior D. Lateral - Correct Answer A. Medial" "You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is describes as: A. Posterior B. Prone C. Anterior D. Supine - Correct Answer B. Prone" "Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? A. Standing up, facing forward, with arms raised above the head B. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent C. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips D. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward - Correct Answer D. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward" "An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? A. A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration B. A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest C. A patient who is actively coughing D. A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris - Correct Answer C. A patient who is actively coughing" "Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using ____________ in addition to standard PPE. A. Face shields B. Heavy- duty gloves C. Level B hazmat suits D. N-95 masks - Correct Answer B. Heavy- duty gloves" "You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the patient's mouth and nose. During assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, "Don't worry, I'm not contagious. I've had this cough for a year." Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. A. Mask yourself only B. Use gloves for PPE, as that's all that is needed C. Isolate the patient with a non-rebreather mask D. Mask yourself and the patient - Correct Answer D. Mask yourself and the patient" "You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has no injuries. The other is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate? You know... walk?" Your partner says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she should avoid using medical terms unnecessarily when taking with patients. She seems insulted and says, "Why?" "What would you say?" A. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is a clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion B. You should say that you are an experie - Correct Answer A. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is a clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion" "Why should an EMT avoid use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating? A. The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different B. They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports C. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient D. Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional - Correct Answer C. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient" "You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia? A. A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required B. Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter C. Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level of care, and it may change the level of response D. There is actually no need to clarify the word - Correct Answer B. Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter" "A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? A. A femur fracture occurring with little to no trauma B. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh C. Two fractures in the same femur D. Fractures in both femurs - Correct Answer D. Fractures in both femurs" "What word would be used to refer to a patient's rapid breathing? A. Dyspnea B. Dyseffusion C. Tachycardia D. Tachypnea - Correct Answer D. Tachypnea" "What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology? A. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent B. It will make patients and family members trust in the EMTs abilities more C. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms D. EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation - Correct Answer A. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent" "Which of the following are abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel? A. Abdominal sextants B. Abdominal quadrants C. Abdominal planes D. Abdominal regions - Correct Answer B. Abdominal quadrants" "To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check fo a pulse in which location? A. Throat B. Upper arm C. Wrist D. Armpit - Correct Answer C. Wrist" "Physiology is the study of: A. Exercise and nutrition B. Muscles and movement C. Body structures D. Body systems - Correct Answer D. Body systems" "In relation to anatomy, the term topography means: A. Key elements of the central nervous system B. External landmarks of body structures C. The study of the skin D. Blood pressure fluctuations - Correct Answer B. External landmarks of body structures" "Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system? A. Tendons B. Acetabulum C. Fat D. Ligaments - Correct Answer C. Fat" "Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the thorax? A. Ischium B. Ribs C. 8th through 19th vertebrae D. Sternum - Correct Answer A. Ischium" "Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? A. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion B. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event C. Delayed capillary refill D. Hypotension - Correct Answer A. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion" "What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? A. Cervical and lumbar B. Sacral and coccygeal C. Cervical and thoracic D. Lumbar and sacral - Correct Answer A. Cervical and lumbar" "Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulses? A. Contractility B. Automaticity C. Conductivity D. Irritability - Correct Answer B. Automaticity" "Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles? A. Bifurcation B. Inhalation C. Exhalation D. Gas exchange - Correct Answer B. Inhalation" "What type of muscles control the size of bronchioles in the lungs? A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Striated D. Voluntary - Correct Answer B. Smooth" "A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? A. Plasma B. White blood cells C. Corpuscles D. Platelets - Correct Answer D. Platelets" "You are caring for a 47 year old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries? A. Femoral arteries B. Coronary arteries C. Brachial arteries D. Pulmonary arteries - Correct Answer B. Coronary arteries" "Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the body? A. Veins B. Capillaries C. Arterioles D. Alveoli - Correct Answer B. Capillaries" "The study of how disease affects the functioning of the human body is called: A. Psychology B. Anatomy C. Pathophysiology D. Physiology - Correct Answer C. Pathophysiology" "The volume of air that is moved in and out of the chest in a normal breath cycle is called: A. Expiration B. Inspiration C. Vital capacity D. Tidal volume - Correct Answer D. Tidal volume" "Not all inspired air reaches the alveoli; 150 mL is stopped in the airway leading to the alveoli. This is called: A. Tidal Volume B. Vital capacity C. Bronchial air D. Dead air space - Correct Answer D. Dead air space" "In normal exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the chest, which creates a positive pressure. This is what type of process? A. Respiration B. Inspiration C. Active D. Passive - Correct Answer D. Passive" "__________ blood returns to the right side of the heart A. Deoxygenated B. Oxygenated C. Anemic D. Red - Correct Answer A. Deoxygenated" "The high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known as: A. Stridor B. Gurgling C. Rhonchi D. Rales - Correct Answer A. Stridor" "The trachea branches off at the _________ and forms two mainstem bronchi A. Carina B. Bronchioles C. Alveoli D. Pleura - Correct Answer A. Carina" "All of the following can result in airway obstructions, except: A. Burns B. Facial trauma C. Infections D. The tongue - Correct Answer D. The tongue" "Perhaps the simplest way to determine if a patient has a patent airway is to: A. Auscultate for breath sounds B. Check for adequate chest rise C. Say "hello" D. Determine a respiratory rate - Correct Answer C. Say "hello"" "What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of air? A. Stridor B. Gurgling C. Hoarseness D. Snoring - Correct Answer D. Snoring" "Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minutes due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. You should: A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate B. Move the patient to the ambulance and suction C. Roll him over onto his side to clear his airway D. Perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs - Correct Answer C. Roll him over onto his side to clear his airway" "Which of the following patients should NOT have their airway opened using a head tilt chin lift maneuver? A. A 25 year old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure B. A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders C. A 50 year old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter D. A 35 year old diabetic woman who is in the driver's seat of the car in her driveway, who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband - Correct Answer B. A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders" "The jaw thrust maneuver is the only _______ airway procedure for an unconscious patient with possible head, neck, or spine injury or unknown mechanism of injury A. Recommended B. Prohibited C. Required D. Forbidden - Correct Answer A. Recommended" "Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (OPAs)? A. They do not come in pediatric sizes B. They required the use of water soluble lubricant C. The cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex D. They cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture - Correct Answer C. The cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex" "Which of the following is an advantage of using a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? A. It eliminates the need for manual positioning of the patient's head to keep the airway open B. It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex C. It is ideal for patients with a suspected skull fracture D. All of the above - Correct Answer B. It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex" "Which of the following structures is found in the lower airway? A. Bronchi B. Uvula C. Tonsils D. Pharynx - Correct Answer A. Bronchi" "What is the danger that an altered mental status can pose to a patient's breathing? A. Depressed alveolar function B. Hyperoxia C. Bronchospasm D. Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse - Correct Answer D. Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse" "For life to be maintained, a balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide is needed. The condition when oxygen levels are low is called: A. Hypoxia B. Hypercarbia C. Hypotension D. Hyperventilation - Correct Answer A. Hypoxia" "What are the signs of hypoxia? A. Commonly seen as blue or gray skin, deterioration of patient's mental status like confusion or restlessness B. Shock caused from the lack of blood flowing to the vital organs like the brian and heart that is irreversible C. Warm dry skin, with difficulty in breathing, and hypertension D. Disease process that robs the patient of adequate breathing and perfusion - Correct Answer A. Commonly seen as blue or gray skin, deterioration of patient's mental status like confusion or restlessness" "What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a patient? A. Increased effort to breathe, increased depth of respiration, pink dry skin, normal mental status B. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status C. Decreased depth of respiration, decreased rate of breathing, hot clammy skin, normal mental status D. Rapid breathing, pale skin, and a normal mental status - Correct Answer B. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status" "In assessing a patient's breathing, what is your first question? A. Is he alive or dead? B. Is he breathing? C. Is his breathing adequate or inadequate? D. Is he big sick of little sick? - Correct Answer B. Is he breathing?" "Why is inhalation described as an active process? A. It uses oxygen to assist chest muscles to contract, creating a negative pressure B. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure C. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure D. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure - Correct Answer D. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure" "The process of air moving in and out of the chest is called: A. Tidal volume B. Ventilation C. Inhalation D. Respiration - Correct Answer B. Ventilation" "The normal stimulus to breathe is stimulated by the chemoreceptors that measure the change of what two gases? A. High carbon monoxide and low oxygen B. High hydrogen and low carbon dioxide C. High carbon dioxide and low oxygen D. Low hydrogen and high carbon monoxide - Correct Answer C. High carbon dioxide and low oxygen" "Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume? A. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas B. It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space C. The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air movement D. The rate does not decrease minute volume, it actually increases - Correct Answer A. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas" "To calculate the minute volume, you need to multiply what two measurements? A. Respiratory rate and bronchial dilation B. Tidal volume and dead space air C. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate D. Tidal volume and respiratory rate - Correct Answer D. Tidal volume and respiratory rate" "Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size up ? A. Mechanism of injury B. Potential hazards to the EMS crew C. Need for additional resources D. Chief complaint - Correct Answer D. Chief complaint" "At what point is the scene size up complete ? A. Upon stabilization of the c spine B. At the end of the call C. When the number of patients has been determined D. When crashed vehicles have been stabilized - Correct Answer B. At the end of the call" "At which of the following points should you begin your scene size up? A. When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance B. As you approach the scene in the ambulance C. When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence D. After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact - Correct Answer B. As you approach the scene in the ambulance" "Which of the following situations requires additional action by the EMT during scene size up? A. The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence B. A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of an assault at a local park C. A news media helicopter arrives and hovers overhead at the scene of a vehicle collision D. A vehicle collision involving a tractor trailer that appears to be empty - Correct Answer A. The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence" "You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by: A. Borrowing turnout gear from the fire department B. Putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene C. Remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out D. Using your fire extinguisher to put out the fire - Correct Answer C. Remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out" "As you arrive at the scene of a house fire, a very upset man screams at you to help his young son, who is trapped under a piece of burning wood on the ground. Which of the following should you do first? A. Perform an initial assessment on the patient B. Size up the scene before acting C. With the father's help grab the boy by the arms and pull him from underneath the wood D. Use a blanket to put out the fire on the piece of wood - Correct Answer B. Size up the scene before acting" "At the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are no apparent hazards, which of the following guidelines should be followed for establishing a danger zone? A. The danger zone should be 150 feet in all directions B. The danger zone should be 15 feet in all directions C. The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions D. There is no need to establish a danger zone when there are no apparent hazards - Correct Answer C. The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions" "When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the: A. Diastolic blood pressure B. Systolic blood pressure C. Pulse pressure D. Central venous pressure - Correct Answer B. Systolic blood pressure" "What is the pressure remaining in the arteries after the pulse wave has passed through? A. Resting blood pressure B. Systolic blood pressure C. Venous pressure D. Diastolic blood pressure - Correct Answer D. Diastolic blood pressure" "A patient with a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute is considered which of the following? A. Normocardic B. Tachycardic C. Bradycardic D. Dyscardic - Correct Answer B. Tachycardic" "The abbreviation mmHg indicates that the blood pressure is measured by which of the following comparisons? A. Millimeters of mercury B. Millimeters of water C. Minimum heart rate D. Atmospheric pressure - Correct Answer A. Millimeters of mercury" "The first set of vital sign measurements obtained are often referred to as which of the following? A. Normal vital signs B. Standard vital signs C. Baseline vital signs D. None of the above - Correct Answer C. Baseline vital signs" "An oxygen saturation of 97% is considered which of the following? A. Significant hypoxia B. Hypoxia C. Severe hypoxia D. Normal - Correct Answer D. Normal" "In a blood pressure reading of 120/80, the 120 is measuring what body process? A. Systolic blood pressure; when the right ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins B. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins C. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries D. Diastolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries - Correct Answer C. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries" "Which of the following are the vital signs that need to be recorded? A. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, blood pressure, and bowel sounds B. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature, pupils, and blood pressure C. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition D. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, and blood pressure - Correct Answer D. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, and blood pressure" "Breathing sounds that should concern the EMT are: A. Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, and crowing B. Tachycardia, retractions, and diaphragmatic breathing C. Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, crowing, and crowning D. Retractions, and diaphragmatic breathing - Correct Answer A. Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, and crowing" "Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone? A. Presence of hazardous materials B. Wind direction C. Fire D. Amount of equipment needed - Correct Answer D. Amount of equipment needed" "You are on the scene of a tanker truck versus passenger vehicle collision on a rural highway. The vehicles are just beyond a curve in the roadway and there is a distinct odor of diesel fuel. It is dark and there is little traffic. Which of the following should be used to alert oncoming traffic to the situation? A. Flashing lights on the ambulance B. Flares C. Yellow crime scene tape D. Reflective triangles - Correct Answer D. Reflective triangles" "The patient was a driver in a lateral impact motor vehicle collision. During the assessment of his chest, the EMT notes a segment of the chest wall moving in the opposite direction form the rest of the chest. Which of the following BEST describes this finding? A. Tension pneumothorax B. Paradoxical movement C. Flutter segment D. Intercostal retractions - Correct Answer B. Paradoxical movement" "When assessing a 14 year old male patient that has been involved in a bicycle accident, you notice that he has a small amount of blood coming form his left forearm. This observation is known as which of the following? A. Clue B. Indication C. Symptom D. Sign - Correct Answer D. Sign" "What is the sound or feel of broken bones rubbing against each other called? A. Osteomyelitis B. Crepitation C. Emesis D. Decapitation - Correct Answer B. Crepitation" "What term describes a permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes? A. Cricothyrotomy B. Larygectomy C. Stoma D. Tracheostomy - Correct Answer C. Stoma" "What term describes a surgical incision in the neck that is held open by a metal or plastic tube through which a patient can breathe or be placed on a ventilator? A. Tracheopharygeal fistula B. Tracheostomy C. Stoma D. Cricothyrotomy - Correct Answer B. Tracheostomy" "When a patient describes how he feels, he is telling you which of the following? A. His diagnosis B. His signs C. His symptoms D. His syndrome - Correct Answer C. His symptoms" "You are assessing a 76 year old male patient that has been involved in a fall from a standing position. You have completed the scene size up and primary assessment. What should you do next? A. Focused history assessment B. Reassessment C. Ongoing assessment D. Secondary assessment - Correct Answer D. Secondary assessment" "You have a patient who is unresponsive on the floor. What is the best way to rule in or rule out trauma as a cause of the patient's unresponsiveness? A. Check the patient's blood sugar to rule out hypoglycemia B. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident C. Examine the patient for signs of trauma D. Look for a Glasgow Coma Scale score that is less than 8 - Correct Answer B. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident" "Which of the following techniques of physical examination must an EMT master? A. Observation, palpation, and auscultation B. Visualization, percussion, and auscultation C. Percussion, inspection, and palpation D. Auscultation, observation, and percussion - Correct Answer A. Observation, palpation, and auscultation" "Which of the following methods should be used to have a patient rate the amount of pain he is having? A. Use the memory aid DCAP B. Use the memory aid AVPU C. Have the patient rate the pain on a scale of 1 (least) to 10 (worst) D. Ask the patient to state whether the pain is mild, moderate, severe, or unbearable - Correct Answer C. Have the patient rate the pain on a scale of 1 (least) to 10 (worst)" "Which of the following BEST describes a base station? A. A two way radio mounted in a vehicle B. A two way radio at a fixed site C. A two way radio that can be carried on a belt clip D. A device used to receive and then amplify transmissions that must be carried over long distances - Correct Answer B. A two way radio at a fixed site" "Which of the following BEST describes a mobile radio? A. A two way radio mounted in a vehicle B. A two way radio at a fixed site C. A two way radio that can be carried on a belt clip D. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over long distance - Correct Answer A. A two way radio mounted in a vehicle" "Which of the following BEST describes a portable radio? A. A two way radio that can be carried on a belt clip B. A two way radio mounted in a vehicle C. A two way radio at a fixed site D. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over long distance - Correct Answer A. A two way radio that can be carried on a belt clip" "Which of the following BEST describes a repeater? A. A two way radio mounted in a vehicle B. A two way radio at a fixed site C. A two way radio that can be carried on a belt clip D. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over long distance - Correct Answer D. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over long distance" "The symptoms or circumstances for which a medication is given is called: A. Side effects B. Untoward effects C. Indications D. Contraindications - Correct Answer C. Indications" "When you give patients nitroglycerin, they sometimes develop a headache. This would be called: A. Contraindication B. Indication C. Side effect D. Untoward effect - Correct Answer C. Side effect" "Which of the following BEST describes a contraindication to a medication? A. A reason why you should never give a medication to a patient B. The way in which a drug causes its effects C. An unintended action of the drug D. A reason why you should give a medication to a patient - Correct Answer A. A reason why you should never give a medication to a patient" "What condition must be present before you give oral glucose? A. The patient, if conscious, must be able to swallow; in unconscious, you can apply the gel to a tongue depressor and place it between the cheek and gum or under the tongue B. The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes C. The patient must be unconscious and have a history of diabetes D. The patient must not have a history of diabetes - Correct Answer B. The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes" "Why should EMT's study pharmacology? A. As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations, although many of these may do nothing but give the patient false hope B. As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations; many of these may be lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm C. An EMT must know the manufacturer, sources, characteristics, and effects of every medication that has been prescribed to the patient D. An EMT must know the sources, characteristics, and effects of each medication that the physician may prescribe - Correct Answer B. As an EMT, you will be trusted to administer medications in emergency situations; many of these may be lifesaving, but there is potential to do harm" "Which of the following does NOT occur during inspiration? A. Intercostal muscles contract B. Diaphragm relaxes C. Chest cavity increases in size D. Diaphragm lowers - Correct Answer B. Diaphragm relaxes" "Which of the following is true concerning expiration? A. The ribs move upward and outward B. The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs C. The diaphragm moves upward D. The chest cavity increases in size - Correct Answer C. The diaphragm moves upward" "Which of the following respiratory rates is considered an abnormal respiratory rate for an adult? A. 16 breaths/min B. 12 breaths/min C. 8 breaths/min D. 20 breaths/min - Correct Answer C. 8 breaths/min" "A patient who has shallow, slow, irregular gasping breaths is said to have __________ respirations? A. Agonal B. Kussmauls C. Central neurogenic D. Cheyne-Stokes - Correct Answer A. Agonal" "Which of the following respiratory rtes should be caused for alarm in a 2 month old child? A. 16 breaths/min B. 40 breaths/min C. 28 breaths/min D. 32 breaths/min - Correct Answer A. 16 breaths/min" "Which of the following BEST defines inadequate breathing? A. Breathing faster than normal B. Breathing slower than normal C. Wheezing noises when breathing D. Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life - Correct Answer D. Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life" "Which of the following may be seen just prior to respiratory arrest? A. Accessory respirations B. Agonal respirations C. Very deep, rapid respirations D. Breathing through the nose, not the mouth - Correct Answer B. Agonal respirations" "Which of the following patients does NOT necessarily have inadequate breathinG? A. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm B. Patient with agonal respirations C. Patient with cyanosis D. Patient whose breath sounds cannot be heard - Correct Answer A. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm" "While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient, you will notice that it is different than that of an adult. Which of the following is one of those differences? A. The chest wall is softer, making it easier for the chest to expand B. The tongue is smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway C. The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed D. The cricoid cartilage is less developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded - Correct Answer C. The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed" "Stroke volume depends on a series of factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known as: A. Contractility B. Automaticity C. Preload D. Afterload - Correct Answer A. Contractility" "What substances, when dissolved, separate into charged particles? A. Ions B. Electrolytes C. Cations D. ATP - Correct Answer B. Electrolytes" "The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy is: A. Protein B. Water C. Oxygen D. Glucose - Correct Answer D. Glucose" "Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of metabolism? A. Carbon monoxide B. Carbon dioxide C. Lactic acid D. Carbolic acid - Correct Answer B. Carbon dioxide" "The seat of respiratory control is found in the: A. Lungs B. Nose C. Medulla oblongata D. Chest - Correct Answer C. Medulla oblongata" "While caring for a 3 year old child, you should be concerned if his respiratory rate exceeds ___________ breaths per minutes A. 16 B. 20 C. 30 D. 24 - Correct Answer C. 30" "Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults? A. See sawing of the chest and abdomen B. Nasal flaring C. Grunting respirations D. All of the above - Correct Answer D. All of the above" "Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should NOT receive supplemental oxygen? A. A patient whose oxygen saturation level is 100% on room air B. A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive C. An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration D. None of these patients should have oxygen withheld - Correct Answer D. None of these patients should have oxygen withheld" "Which of the following is the general term used to refer to a problem with the heart? A. Congestive heart failure B. Myocardial infarction C. Cardiac compromise D. Cardiac dysrhythmia - Correct Answer C. Cardiac compromise" "What is NOT part of the cardiovascular system? A. Arteries B. Hormones C. Venules D. Veins - Correct Answer B. Hormones" "Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the chest? A. Palpitations B. Pulseless electrical activity of the heart C. Tachycardia D. Dysrhythmia - Correct Answer A. Palpitations" "Which of the following statements concerning heart attacks and cardiac arrest is NOT true? A. Many patients may mistake their symptoms for other causes such as indigestion B. Heart attacks present differently among women and men C. The most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac death is asystole D. Some patients who have heart attacks live active and healthy lifestyles - Correct Answer C. The most common initial rhythm in sudden cardiac death is asystole" "You are treating a patient with signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction (MI). What is the most important drug you should administer? A. Aspirin B. Albuterol C. Oxygen D. Epinephrine auto- injector (Epi-Pen) - Correct Answer C. Oxygen" "You are on scene with a 48 year old unresponsive male patient. Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed. Vital signs are blood pressure 68/42, pulse 36, and respiratory rate 3. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. After performing the primary assessment and treating all life threats, what is your next intervention? A. Insert an oral airway B. Apply the AED C. Package the patient for rapid transport D. Administer high-concentration oxygen at 15 lpm by bag valve mask - Correct Answer C. Package the patient for rapid transport" "Assuming you protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the pre hospital setting? A. 3 B. 4 C. 1 D. 2 - Correct Answer A. 3" "Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac emergencies? A. It dilates only the coronary arteries B. It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body C. It increases the strength with which the ventricles contract D. It slows down the heart - Correct Answer B. It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body" "Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is true? A. The patient may complain of a headache following administration B. An increase in blood pressure should be expected C. If the patient's pulse rate changes following nitroglycerin administration, it indicates an allergic reaction D. It takes 20 to 30 minutes for nitroglycerin to have an effect - Correct Answer A. The patient may complain of a headache following administration" "Which of the following is the EMT's role in caring for a patient with chest pain? A. Make an interpretation of the patient's cardiac rhythm B. Determine the cause of the patient's chest pain C. Treat the patient as though he were having a heart attack D. Provide automatic external defibrillation - Correct Answer C. Treat the patient as though he were having a heart attack" "In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be prohibited? A. The patient does not currently take aspirin B. The patient has a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg C. The patient has a history of asthma D. The patient feels dizzy - Correct Answer C. The patient has a history of asthma" "Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries? A. Coronary artery disease B. Aneurysm C. Coronary thrombosis D. Arteriosclerosis - Correct Answer A. Coronary artery disease" "The medical term for fainting is: A. Altered RAS status B. Vertigo C. Dehydration D. Syncope - Correct Answer D. Syncope" "Which of the following BEST describes status epilepticus? A. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness B. A period of drowsiness following tonic-clonic seizures C. A seizure that occurs without a known cause D. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body - Correct Answer A. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness" "Your patient is waking up from a seizure; it was the patient's first seizure ever. When you ask what happened, the patient tells you that she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. This sensation is known as: A. Aura B. Tonic phase C. Clonic phase D. Postictal phase - Correct Answer A. Aura" "The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the following? A. Transient ischemic attack B. Seizure C. Aphasia D. Stroke - Correct Answer D. Stroke" "A hormone called insulin is secreted by the: A. Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas B. Gallbladder found in the pancreas C. Islets of Langerhans in the liver D. None of the above - Correct Answer A. Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas" "There are two types of seizures; if your patient is having a seizure that affects only one body part and does not cause her to lose consciousness, it is called a: A. Postictal seizure B. Partial seizure C. Tonic- clonic seizure D. Generalized seizure - Correct Answer B. Partial seizure" "The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is called: A. Hyperglycemia B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Diabetic coma D. Hypoglycemia - Correct Answer D. Hypoglycemia" "Your patient is a 25 year old female with a history of diabetes. She is confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present illness, you should suspect which of the following as the likely cause of the patient's presentation? A. A nondiabetic related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness B. Failure to intake sufficient sugar C. Failure to take her insulin D. Excessive intake of foods high in sugar, such as soda or candy - Correct Answer B. Failure to intake sufficient sugar" "For the reticular activating system (RAS) to work correctly, what three substances are needed? A. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated B. Oxygen to perfuse the brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated C. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated D. Oxygen to perfuse the brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep he brain hydrated - Correct Answer B. Oxygen to perfuse the brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated" "Normal consciousness is regulated by a series of neurologic circuits in the brain that comprise the reticular activating system (RAS). The RAS has simple requirements to function properly. Which one of the following items is NOT one of those requirements? A. Sodium B. Glucose C. Water D. Oxygen - Correct Answer A. Sodium" "What is another name for a severe allergic reaction? A. Psychosomatic reaction B. Asthma C. Dermatitis D. Anaphylaxis - Correct Answer D. Anaphylaxis" "Which of the following statements concerning severe allergic reactions is true? A. The quicker the onset of symptoms, the greater the likelihood of a severe allergic reaction B. A severe allergic reaction can be prevented by the use of an epinephrine auto- injector before exposure to the substance C. A severe allergic reaction occurs only when the patient has never been exposed to the substance before D. Allergies do not develop until a person is in his late teens to early 20s - Correct Answer A. The quicker the onset of symptoms,