EMT-B Final Exam Study Set – Over 690 Exam Questions with Correct and Verified Answer

EMT-B Final Exam Study Set – Over 690 Exam Questions with Correct and Verified Answer (Correct answer indicated on to/ at the start of every question) "D. informed You are treating a conscious and mentally competent adult patient who wants to refuse your care and transport to the hospital. This refusal must be _____ and documented. A. implied B. actual C. involuntary D. informed" "B. implied The EMT is authorized to treat and transport an unconscious patient because of the legal consideration known as _____ consent. A. applied B. implied C. triage D. immunity" "D. meaningless. A child falls of a trampoline at an elementary school and twists her ankle. Because the parents are not present, the child's consent is A. not needed. B. actual. C. implied. D. meaningless." "C. Good Samaritan laws In some states, _____ help protect the off-duty EMT from lawsuits when stopping at the scene of a collision to offer assistance. A. professional associations B. blanket insurance policies C. Good Samaritan laws D. abandonment laws" "A. entering hazmat scenes with SCBA. Each of the following is the responsiblity of an EMT at a hazardous-materials (hazmat) incident except: A. entering hazmat scenes with SCBA. B. protecting yourself and others. C. recognizing potential problems. D. notifying the hazardous-materials response team." "B. Standard Precautions. The form of infection control that assumes that all body fluids should be considered potentially infectious is: A. infectious disease. B. Standard Precautions. C. immunity. D. universal precautions." C. National Highway Transportation Safety Administration (NHTSA). Most EMT training programs are based on standards developed by the: A. American Red Cross (ARC). B. American Heart Association (AHA). C. National Highway Transportation Safety Administration (NHTSA). D. National Institutes of Health (NIH)." "D. being pleasant, cooperative, and sincere, and a good listener. An EMT can inspire patient confidence and cooperation by: A. transporting the patient from the scene to a hospital. B. providing patient care without regard for her own personal safety. C. telling the patient that everything will be all right. D. being pleasant, cooperative, and sincere, and a good listener." "C. negligence. If an on-duty EMT fails to provide the standard of care and if this failure causes harm or injury to the patient, the EMT may be accused of: A. assault. B. abandonment. C. negligence. D. breach of promise." "D. the distance the patient needs to be carried. When planning to lift a patient, all of the following are important considerations for the EMT except: A. the weight of the patient. B. one's physical characteristics. C. communicating with one's partner. D. the distance the patient needs to be carried." "C. use the leg muscles to do the lift. When lifting an injured patient, the EMT should: A. keep the back loose and knees locked. B. twist or attempt to make moves other than the lift. C. use the leg muscles to do the lift. D. try not to talk to her or his partner." "C. use a stair chair whenever possible. You are treating a 45-year-old male who twisted his ankle in the upstairs bathroom. To carry this patient on the stairs, you should: A. keep the stretcher as level as possible. B. use a long backboard at all times. C. use a stair chair whenever possible. D. do all of these." "C. keep arms straight when pulling. Ways an EMT can avoid a potential back injury include all of the following except: A. push, rather than pull, a load. B. keep the back locked in while lifting. C. keep arms straight when pulling. D. push or pull from a kneeling position if the weight is below waist level." "D. the patient is unconscious. An emergency move is required in each of the following situations except when: A. the scene is hazardous. B. care of life-threatening conditions requires repositioning. C. other patients who have life threats must be reached. D. the patient is unconscious." "A. A spinal injury may be aggravated. Which of the following is the greatest danger to the patient in an emergency move? A. A spinal injury may be aggravated. B. Bleeding may increase after movement. C. The airway may become obstructed. D. There is no danger associated with an emergency move." "B. extremity lift. A method of lifting and carrying a patient in which one EMT slips hands under the patient's armpits and grasps the wrists while another EMT grasps the patient's knees is called the: A. direct ground lift. B. extremity lift. C. draw-sheet method. D. direct carry method." "B. modified draw-sheet method. Your patient is a medical patient with a suspected drug overdose. He is lying supine on your stretcher, and you have been maintaining his airway. When moving him from the ambulance stretcher to the hospital stretcher, you will probably use the: A. crade carry. B. modified draw-sheet method. C. direct ground lift. D. extremity lift." "A. opposite sides To load the wheeled ambulance stretcher into the ambulance, the two EMTs should position themselves on _____ of the stretcher. A. opposite sides B. opposide ends C. the same side D. one end and one side" "B. extremity lift. You are treating a 28-year-old conscious diabetic who has an altered level of consciousness. She is lying on the floor at the moment. To move her from the floor to a stair chair, use the: A. indirect carry. B. extremity lift. C. slide transfer. D. chair lift." "A. do not protect the patient's neck and spine. Drags are used only in emergencies because they: A. do not protect the patient's neck and spine. B. require excessive energy from the EMT. C. may injure the EMT's back. D. provide full immobilization." "B. an even number of To maintain balance when lifting a patient-carrying device, it is best to use _____ rescuers to carry the device. A. three B. an even number of C. an odd number of D. bystanders and" "B. make an urgent move. You are treating the driver of a vehicle involved in a collision. He is a 22-year-old male who requires immediate airway and bleeding control. You are unable to provide this treatment in the vehicle. You should: A. check the patient's vital signs. B. make an urgent move. C. remove the patient on a short backboard. D. do all of these." "D. Piggyback Your patient is an unconscious adult female stroke patient. Which carry is considered very difficult to use with an unconscious person? A. Cradle B. Three-rescuer C. Shoulder D. Piggyback" "C. firefighter's The _____ carry must be performed in one unbroken sweep. A. pack strap B. front piggyback C. firefighter's D. four-rescue" "C. flexible A canvas or rubberized stretcher that can be used to move a patient through a narrow hallway or restricted are is called a _____ stretcher. A. basket B. portable C. flexible D. wheeled-ambulance" "B. clothes drag. A patient with obvious spinal injuries is found on the floor of a burning building. The EMT rates the situation hazardous but not yet dire. Alone and without special equipment, the EMT should use the: A. cradle carry. B. clothes drag. C. firefighter's carry. D. pack-strap method." "C. wheeled ambulance The patient-carrying device of choice for the 20-year-old male who is dizzy by not injured is the _____ stretcher. A. portable ambulance B. wire basket C. wheeled ambulance D. slat" "D. All of these are reasons to serve as an advocate. If you are an EMT with a service that does not provide the appropriate personal protective equipment, why should you serve as an advocate for this equipment? A. Your crew members could be injured unneccessarily. B. You could be seriously injured. C. An injured EMT is of little help to the patient. D. All of these are reasons to serve as an advocate." "A. retreat to a safe area. During an EMT call, a lethal threat is made by the 24-year-old intoxicated male. The EMT should first: A. retreat to a safe area. B. radio for assistance. C. reevaluate the situation. D. remedy the situation." "B. Eustress Of the different types of stress, which is a positive form that helps the EMT work under pressure and respond effectively? A. Eumulative stress B. Eustress C. Distress D. Critical incident stress" "C. enter the neighborhood. When responding to a violent situation, observation beings when you: A. enter the scene. B. exit the ambulance. C. enter the neighborhood. D. arrive at the patient's side." "B. carry a portable radio. To ensure crew safety, one member of the crew should always: A. remain in the ambulance. B. carry a portable radio. C. wear a bulletproof vest. D. carry a canister of pepper gas." "B. quickly control the bleeding; then have the dog locked in another room. While you are treating a patient with a severely bleeding forearm, the patient's pet dog appears. The patient states, "He won't hurt you. He's very friendly." Your best course of action would be to: A. have your partner observe the dog closely while you treat the patient. B. quickly control the bleeding; then have the dog locked in another room. C. ignore the dog because the patient assures you it is friendly and will not harm you. D. do all of these." "C. treat life-threatening problems and transport. If a patient refuses care and then becomes unconscious, it is best for the EMT to: A. refuse to treat or transport the patient. B. ask a family member for permission to treat. C. treat life-threatening problems and transport. D. contact medical direction for advice." "B. the patient's expressed wishes may be followed. An advantage of the advance directive is that: A. the patient is not involved in making a secision about her treatment. B. the patient's expressed wishes may be followed. C. no matter what the family says, CPR is not given. D. it protects the EMT from charges of negligence." "C. not a reason to withhold medical care. In most cases, the oral wishes of the patient's family to withhold care are: A. all that is needed to stop CPR from being initiated. B. all that is needed to stop CPR once it is initiated. C. not a reason to withhold medical care. D. not sufficient unless they are given in writing." "D. do all of these. Some EMTs participate in activities that attract legal actions, while most EMTs are rarely involved in legal entanglements. You can prevent most lawsuits if you: A. provide care within the scope of your practice. B. properly document your care. C. are courteous and respectful to all your patients. D. do all of these." "D. health insurance costs. The negligent EMT may be required to pay for all of the following except the patient's: A. lost wages. B. medical expenses. C. pain and suffering D. health insurance costs." "D. It regulates body temperature. Which of the following is not a function of the musculoskeletal system? A. It gives the body shape. B. It protects the internal organs. C. It provides for body movement. D. It regulates body temperature." "C. manubrium. The superior portion of the sternum is called the: A. xiphoid process. B. sternal body. C. manubrium. D. clavicle." "B. medial malleolus. A young girl fell while ice skating and injured the protrusion on the inside of the ankle. The medical term for this location is the: A. acromion. B. medial malleolus. C. lateral malleolus. D. calcaneus." "B. automaticity The heart muscle has property called _____. This means that the heart has the ability to generate and conduct electrical impulses on its own. A. contractibility B. automaticity C. involuntary contraction D. conductibility" "A. autonomic A division of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary motor functions is called the _____ nervous system. A. autonomic B. central C. sensory D. motor" "B. the observer. When in the anatomical position, a person is facing: A. away from you. B. the observer. C. face down. D. face up." "A. forward. In the anatomical position, the person's palms will be facing: A. forward. B. backward. C. upward. D. downward." "D. plantar. An anatomical term that is occasionally used to refer to the sole of the foot is: A. calcaneus. B. ventral. C. dorsal. D. plantar." "C. zygomatic The bones of the cheek are called the _____ bones. A. orbit B. maxillae C. zygomatic D. mandible" "D. superior The heart is _____ to the stomach. A. distal B. medial C. proximal D. superior" "B. proximal; distal When comparing body structure positions, the knees are said to be _____ to the toes, and the toes are _____ to the knees. A. inferior; superior B. proximal; distal C. distal; dorsal D. anterior; posterior" "C. supine A patient found lying on her back is in the _____ position. A. anatomical B. prone C. supine D. lateral recumbent" "C. four To assist in describing the location of abdominal organs, we divide the abdomen into _____ parts. A. two B. three C. four D. five" "A. thorax. Your 18-year-old male patient has severe burns of the entire front (anterior) surface of the torso. The torso of the body is composed of the abdomen, pelvis, and: A. thorax. B. upper arms and legs. C. extremities. D. head." "A. thoracic The heart is located in the center of the _____ cavity. A. thoracic B. cranial C. pelvic D. cardiac" "C. diaphragm. The structure that divides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity is the: A. meninges. B. duodenum. C. diaphragm. D. spinal column." "C. patella. The anatomical name for the kneecap is the: A. ilium. B. malleolus. C. patella. D. phalange." "C. top, back, and sides of the skull. The cranium consists of the: A. facial bones. B. mandible and maxillae. C. top, back, and sides of the skull. D. zygomatic bones." "A. acromion process. The highest point in the shoulder is the: A. acromion process. B. humerus. C. metatarsal. D. clavicle." "C. Good Samaritan At the scene of a collision, an off-duty EMT provides care to the patient, acting in good faith and to the best of her abilities. In many states, this EMT is protected from care-related lawsuits by _____ laws. A. applied consent B. total immunity C. Good Samaritan D. jeopardy" "B. consider consent for care to be implied and begin care. When confronted with an unconscious minor without parents or a legal guardian present, the EMT should: A. seek a physician's approval before beginning care. B. consider consent for care to be implied and begin care. C. ask the child for consent and begin care. D. consider consent to be applied and begin care." "C. The EMT had a local duty. The legal concept of negligence requires that three circumstances must me demonstrated. Which of the following is not one of the three circumstances? A. The EMT had a duty to act. B. The EMT committed a breach of duty. C. The EMT had a local duty. D. The breach of duty caused harm." "B. prone A person lying on his stomach with his face down is in the _____ position. A. supine B. prone C. coma D. recovery" "C. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. As an EMT, you have been assigned to take a terminally ill patient back and forth to chemotherapy multiple times a week for the next few weeks. You realize that the patient has been going through emotional stages in the following order: A. depression, bargaining, denial, acceptance, anger. B. acceptance, rage, depression, acceptance, bargaining. C. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. D. bargaining, acceptance, denial, anger, depression." "B. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians In 1970, the _____ was founded to establish professional standards for EMS personnel. A. American Medical Association B. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration D. U.S. Department of Transportation" "D. ambulance. Safe, reliable transportation is a critical component of an EMS system. Most patients can be transported effectively by: A. airplane. B. helicopter. C. rescue vehicle. D. ambulance." "B. EMT-Intermediate An _____ is a national-level EMT who has been trained to start IVs, perform advanced airway techniques, and administer some medicines beyond the EMT. A. EMT-First Responder B. EMT-Intermediate C. EMT-Critical Care D. EMT-Paramedic" "B. quality improvement. A continuous self-review with the purpose of identifying and correcting aspects of the EMS system that require improvement is called: A. standing orders. B. quality improvement. C. protocols. D. medical direction." "B. Medical Director. A physician who assumes the ultimate responsibility for the patient-care aspects of the EMS system is called the: A. Designated Agent. B. Medical Director. C. Off-line Director. D. Primary Care Physician." "A. patients who refuse care. Situations that are higher risks of a lawsuit against an EMS agency are: A. patients who refuse care. B. on-scene deaths. C. cardiac arrest cases. D. pedestrians struck by cars." "D. scope of practice. The legal extent or limits of the EMT's job are formally defined by the: A. patient. B. DOT curriculum. C. state. D. scope of practice." "A. Decisiveness Which is not generally considered a sign or symptom of stress? A. Decisiveness B. Guilt C. Loss of interest in work D. Difficulty sleeping" "D. motor vehicle collisions. All of the following are types of calls that have a high potential for causing excessive stress except: A. calls involving infants and children. B. patients with severe injuries. C. cases of abuse and neglect. D. motor vehicle collisions." "B. increased consumption of fatty foods. Lifestyle changes that can help the EMT deal with stress include all of the following except: A. exercise to burn off tension. B. increased consumption of fatty foods. C. decreased consumption of caffeine. D. decreased consumption of alcohol." "A. requesting a change of shift or location. Changes in your professional life to reduce and prevent stress can include: A. requesting a change of shift or location. B. taking on another part-time position. C. working additional overtime shifts. D. requesting a busier location." "D. protect the body from the environment, bacteria, and other organisms. One of the functions of the integumentary system is to: A. regulate the diameter of the blood vessels in the circulation. B. eliminate excess oxygen into the atmosphere. C. allow environmental water to carefully enter the body. D. protect the body from the environment, bacteria, and other organisms." "C. normal and to be expected. Stress after a major EMS incident is: A. unusual and expected. B. a sign of weakness. C. normal and to be expected. D. part of the grieving process." "B. depression. Retreating to a world of one's own after hearing one is going to die is a result of the stage of grief called: A. bargaining. B. depression. C. denial. D. anxiety." "B. anaerobic metabolism. When a patient's lower extremities are trapped under a farm tractor, the blood supply is diminished to the cells in the legs. This injury can result in: A. no lactic acids being produced. B. anaerobic metabolism. C. no carbon dioxide being produced. D. none of these." "C. bloodborne A disease that is spread by exposure to an open wound or sore of an infected individual is caused by a(n) _____ pathogen. A. universal B. airborne C. bloodborne D. infectious" "D. hepatits. An infection that causes inflammation of the liver is called: A. meningitis. B. tuberculosis. C. typhoid. D. hepatitis." "C. airborne. A disease spread by inhaling or absorbing droplets from the air through the eyes, nose, or mouth is considered: A. bloodborne. B. noncommunicable. C. airborne. D. viral." "D. hepatitis B virus. The communicable disease that kills the most health workers every year in the United States is: A. tuberculosis. B. HIV/AIDS. C. meningitis. D. hepatitis B virus." "B. productive cough has TB. Always assume that any patient with a: A. cold has a bloodborne disease. B. productive cough has TB. C. fever has typhoid. D. rash has measles." "D. It is an airborne pathogen. Which of the following is not true about the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? A. It attacks the immune system. B. It doesn't survive well outside the human body. C. It can be introduced through puncture wounds. D. It is an airborne pathogen." "C. 30 percent. Your patient has hepatitis B. You are accidentally stuck with a needle that has some of this patient's infected blood on it. Your chance of contracting the disease is about: A. 10 percent. B. 20 percent. C. 30 percent. D. 40 percent." "A. 0.5 percent. Your patient has HIV. You are accidentally stuck with a needle that has some infected blood on it. Your chance of contracting the disease is about: A. 0.5 percent. B. 5 percent. C. 10 percent. D. 15 percent." "C. HEPA or N-95 respirator. If you think your patient has TB, you should wear the usual personal protective equipment plus a: A. surgeon's mask. B. gown. C. HEPA or N-95 respirator. D. Tyvek suit." "A. pocket mask with a one-way valve. Instead of providing mouth-to-mouth ventilations on the nonbreathing patient, the EMT, when acting alone, should use a(n): A. pocket mask with a one-way valve. B. one-way valve. C. bag-valve mask. D. endotracheal tube." "C. Hand washing after each patient contact Which method of infection control reduces exposure to yourself, your crew, and your next patient? A. Wearing a HEPA or N-95 respirator B. Taking universal precautions C. Hand washing after each patient contact D. None of these" "B. the Ryan White CARE Act. An act that establishes procedures through which emergency response workers can find out if they have been exposed to life-threatening infectious diseases is called: A. OSHA 1910.1030. B. the Ryan White CARE Act. C. AIDS Protection Act. D. OSHA 1910.120." "A. OSHA 1910.1030. Each emergency response employer must develop a plan that identifies and documents job classifications and tasks in which there is the possibility for expoure to potentially infectious body fluids. This is required by: A. OSHA 1910.1030. B. the Ryan White CARE Act. C. the AIDS Protection Act. D. OSHA 1910.120." "D. hepatitis B vaccination. Every employer of EMTs must provide free of charge: A. a yearly physical examination. B. a life insurance policy. C. universal health insurance. D. hepatitis B vaccination." "D. all of these. Engineering controls that prevent the spread of bloodborne diseases include: A. pocket masks. B. needle containers. C. disposable airway equipment. D. all of these." "C. HEPA or N-95 respirator Which of the following is not required by the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard? A. Postexposure evaluation and follow-up B. Personal protective equipment C. HEPA or N-95 respirator D. Housekeeping controls and labeling" "B. Daycare centers Which of the following is not considered a high-risk area for TB? A. Correctional facilities B. Daycare centers C. Homeless shelters D. Nursing homes" "D. turn off your lights and siren. As you near an emergency scene, you should: A. sound your siren to broadcast your arrival. B. go straight to the front door. C. secure the scene as quickly as possible. D. turn off your lights and siren." "A. notify the police immediately. If anyone at the scene is in possession of a weapon, the EMT should: A. notify the police immediately. B. ask the person to give it to you. C. ignore the person with the weapon. D. advise the person to leave the scene." "A. respiratory failure. The reduction of breathing to the point where oxygen intake is not sufficient to support life is called: A. respiratory failure. B. anoxic metabolism. C. respiratory arrest. D. respiratory support." "C. blue or gray skin coloration. Adequate signs of breathing include all of the following except: A. equal expansion of both sides of the chest. B. air moving in and out of the nose. C. blue or gray skin coloration. D. present and equal breath sounds." "B. nasal flaring. The widening of the nostrils of the nose with respirations is called: A. hyperventilating. B. nasal flaring. C. nasal gurgling. D. wheezing." "B. cyanosis. The condition in which a patient's skin or lips are blue or gray is called: A. stridor. B. cyanosis. C. pallor. D. anemia." "C. shortness of breath. If a patient is unable to speak in full sentences, this could be a sign of: A. complete airway blockage. B. snoring. C. shortness of breath. D. respiratory arrest." "B. inserting an endotracheal tube immediately. The procedures by which life-threatening respiratory problems are initially treated by the EMT include all of the following except: A. opening and maintaining the airway. B. inserting an endotracheal tube immediately. C. providing supplemental oxygen to the breathing patient. D. ensuring a clear airway with frequent suctioning." "A. the tongue. You are assessing the airway of an unconscious male patient. You recall that most airway problems are caused by: A. the tongue. B. asthma. C. shock. D. the epiglottis." "D. Jaw-thrust You are treating a patient who fell down a flight of metal stairs. Which maneuver is most appropriate for an unconscious patient found lying at the bottom of a stairwell? A. Head-tilt, chin-lift B. Head-tilt, neck-lift C. Jaw-pull lift D. Jaw-thrust" "B. one-rescuer bag-valve mask. You are managing a 34-year-old male who you suspect has had a narcotic overdose. His respirations are very slow and shallow, and you will need to assist them. When choosing a means of ventilating a patient, your last choice would be: A. flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device. B. one-rescuer bag-valve mask. C. two-rescuer bag-valve mask. D. mouth-to-mask with high-flow supplemental oxygen." "C. rate of ventilation is too fast or too slow. Artificial ventilation may be inadequate if the: A. chest rises with each ventilation. B. heart rate returns to normal. C. rate of ventilation is too fast or too slow. D. skin becomes warm and dry." "A. 15/22 mm. The standard respiratory fitting on a bag-valve mask that ensures a proper fit with other respiratory equipment is: A. 15/22 mm. B. 10/14 mm. C. 5/20 mm. D. 20/26 mm." "D. a pop-off valve. A bag-valve mask should have or be all of the following except: A. a self-refilling shell. B. a clear face mask. C. easily cleared and sterilized. D. a pop-off valve." "C. 15 The proper oxygen flow rate when ventilating a patient with a BVM is _____ liters per minute. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20" "B. sufficient to achieve visible chest rise. According to the American Heart Association guidelines, when ventilating a patient with a bag mask that has supplementary oxygen, the volume administered should be: A. 400 milliliters. B. sufficient to achieve visible chest rise. C. 800 milliliters. D. as much as possible during the 1-second time frame." "C. clear any mucus or secretions obstructing the stoma. The first step in providing artificial ventilation of a stoma breather is to: A. leave the head and neck in a neutral position. B. ventilate at the appropriate rate for the patient's age. C. clear any mucus or secretions obstructing the stoma. D. establish a seal using a pediatric-sized mask." "A. an audible alarm when ventilation is activated. A flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device should have all of the following features except: A. an audible alarm when ventilation is activated. B. a trigger that enables the rescuer to use both hands. C. a peak flow rate of up to 40 liters per minute. D. a rugged design and construction." "B. nasopharyngeal airway. The two most common airway adjuncts for the EMT to use are the oropharyngeal airway and the: A. nasal cannula. B. nasopharyngeal airway. C. endotracheal tube. D. Yankauer." "D. all unconscious patients with no gag reflex. An oropharyngeal airway should be inserted in: A. all patients with inadequate breathing. B. trauma patients with a gag reflex. C. medical patients with a gag reflex. D. all unconscious patients with no gag reflex." "C. never suction for longer than 15 seconds. When suctioning a 19-year-old patient who you suspect has bleeding into his throat, you should: A. suction on the way in and the way out. B. avoid using eyewear or a mask. C. never suction for longer than 15 seconds. D. hypoventilate prior to suctioning." "C. shock. The emergency situation in which there is a failure of the cardiovascular system to provide sufficient blood to all the vital tissues is called: A. respiratory arrest. B. respiratory failure. C. shock. D. cardiac arrest." "C. hypoxia. An insufficiency in the supply of oxygen to the body's tissues is called: A. anoxia. B. no-oxia. C. hypoxia. D. cyanosis." "A. 200 Before the oxygen cylinder's pressure gauge reads a minimum of _____ psi, you must switch to a fresh cylinder. A. 200 B. 400 C. 800 D. 1,000" "C. store reserve cylinders in a warm, humid room. When handling oxygen cylinders, the EMT should do all of the following except: A. have the cylinders hydrostatically tested every 5 years. B. ensure that valve seat inserts and gaskets are in good condition. C. store reserve cylinders in a warm, humid room. D. use medical-grade oxygen in all cylinders." "A. nonrebreather mask. The best way to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient is to use a: A. nonrebreather mask. B. partial rebreather mask. C. bag-valve mask. D. nasal cannula." "B. 24; 44 A nasal cannula provides between _____ percent and _____ percent oxygen concentrations. A. 10; 21 B. 24; 44 C. 36; 58 D. 72; 96" "B. leave them in unless they are loose. You are assessing a 54-year-old woman who is unconscious and has a noisy upper airway. If she has dentures, during airway procedures the EMT should: A. remove them right away. B. leave them in unless they are loose. C. remove the teeth one at a time. D. hold them in place with a free hand." "A. the mouth and nose are smaller and more easily obstructed. When managing the airway of a child, an airway consideration you should remember is that: A. the mouth and nose are smaller and more easily obstructed. B. the chest wall is firmer in a child. C. the trachea is wider and less easily obstructed. D. all of these are airway considerations in a child." "A. respiratory arrest. You are dealing with a patient who is in severe respiratory distress from a life-threatening asthma attack. If breathing stops completely, the patient is in: A. respiratory arrest. B. ventilatory reduction. C. artificial ventilation. D. respiratory failure." "C. Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device Which ventilation device is contraindicated in infants and children? A. Bag-valve mask B. Pediatric pocket mask C. Flow-restricted, oxygen powered ventilation device D. Nonrebreather mask." "A. flowmeter. A device that allows the control of oxygen in liters per minute is called a: A. flowmeter. B. G tank. C. humidifier. D. reservoir." "B. constant flow selector valve. A type of flowmeter that has no gauge and allows for the adjustment of flow in liters per minute and in stepped increments is called a: A. Bourdon gauge flowmeter. B. constant flow selector valve. C. humidifier. D. pressure compensated flowmeter." "A. Lack of humidity can dry out the patient's mucous membranes. Why do some EMS systems use humidified oxygen? A. Lack of humidity can dry out the patient's mucous membranes. B. It provides a reservoir for the oxygen. C. It limits the risk of infection. D. It is helpful when transporting patients short distances." "C. hypoxic drive. A patient in the end stage of a respiratory disease may have switched over to: A. hyperventilation syndrome. B. hyperbaric therapy. C. hypoxic drive. D. carbon dioxide drive." "D. Chronic pulmonary disease You are talking with a patient and he states that has has had COPD for the past 10 years. What is COPD? A. A type of shock B. A type of ventilation C. A mechanism of breathing D. Chronic pulmonary disease" "D. withdrawn; rigid When using an air mattress, the patient is placed on the device and the air is _____ by a pump. The mattress will then form a _____ and conforming surface around the patient." "C. digestive The body system that is responsible for the breakdown of food into absorbable forms is called the _____ system. A. urinary B. nervous C. digestive D. integumentary" "C. post-traumatic stress disorder. A stress reaction that involves either physical or psychological behavior manifested days or weeks after an incident is called a(n): A. cumulative stress disorder. B. burnout. C. post-traumatic stress disorder. D. acute stress reaction." "B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. An agency privacy officer is required by the: A. Ryan White Law. B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. C. National Fire Protection Association Standards. D. Privacy Control Act of 2002." "D. 6,000 When an adult patient is breathing at a respiratory rate of 12 times a minute, you would expect that the minute volume would be approximately _____ mL per minute. A. 3,000 B. 4,500 C. 5,000 D. 6,000" "C. dehydration. Your patient is a 45-year-old female who has been vomiting and has had diarrhea for the past week. There is a danger that she may have a condition called: A. extremity edema. B. an excess of body fluid. C. dehydration. D. all of these." "A. Yes, he is probably very short of breath. You question an elderly man sitting on a bench in the park. He has a respiratory complaint, and he speaks in short, two or three word sentences. Is this significant? A. Yes, he is probably very short of breath. B. No, elderly patients always talk slowly. C. No, he is probably always like that. D. Yes, he probably has a complete airway obstruction." "B. Because children in this age group are primarily nasal breathers. Why can nasal congestion be a major problem in the first few months of life? A. Because the liver is so large in patients in this age group. B. Because children in this age group are primarily nasal breathers. C. Because it is an indication of life-threatening airway compromise. D. Because children in this age group breathe with their diaphragm." "B. sucking When the mother strokes the infant's lips and the baby starts sucking, this is a nervous system reflex known as the _____ reflex. A. Moro B. sucking C. palmar D. rooting" "C. self-destructive behaviors. The adolescent years are the beginning of: A. better decision making skills. B. nasal breathing. C. self-destructive behaviors. D. all of these." "D. Young adult You are treating a patient who was involved in a serious accident. Based on the leading causes of death, what age group is this patient most likely to be in? A. Infant B. School age C. Adolescent D. Young adult" "D. Adolescent Serious conflicts occur in families as the issues of control and independence collide with children in which age group? A. Toddler B. Preschool C. School age D. Adolescent" "B. 16. Girls are usually finished growing by the age of: A. 14. B. 16. C. 18. D. 20." "B. Yes, she is probably short of breath. You are examining an elderly woman sitting on a park bench. She is sitting forward with her elbows outward and speaking in short, choppy sentences. Is this significant in her history? A. No, she is probably always like that. B. Yes, she is probably short of breath. C. No, elderly patients like to sit forward like that. D. Yes, she probably has a spine injury." "B. head-tilt, chin-lift You have been called to a restaurant for a patient who collapsed at the dinner table. According to a family members, she did not strike her head as she slid out of the chair when she went unconscious. To open her airway, the EMT should use a _____ maneuver. A. modified jaw-thrust B. head-tilt, chin-lift C. head-tilt, neck-lift D. modified chin-lift" "C. measured from the patient's nostril to the earlobe. A nasopharyngeal airway should be: A. turned 180 degrees with the tip facing the roof of the mouth. B. inserted with the bevel on the lateral side of the nostril. C. measured from the patient's nostril to the earlobe. D. inserted in the left nostril when possible." "C. inadequate breathing and is a precursor to respiratory arrest. You are treating a patient who initially had a chief complaint of severe difficulty breathing. You have concerns that this may be leading to respiratory failure, which is: A. cause by electrocution in young adults. B. another term used to describe respiratory arrest. C. inadequate breathing and is a precursor to respiratory arrest. D. the complete cessation of expiration." "D. air that can be felt at the nose or mouth on exhalation. You are treating a patient who initially had a chief complaint of severe difficulty breathing. You have concerns that this may be leading to respiratory failure. The patient could have any of the following signs except: A. absent or minimal chest movement. B. noises such as wheezing, gurgling, stridor, or crowing. C. diminished or absent breath sounds. D. air that can be felt at the nose or mouth on exhalation." "B.12 to 20 per minute. You are treating a patient who your partner states has a normal breathing rate for an adult. The patient's breathing rate is most likely: A. 6 to 10 per minute. B. 12 to 20 per minute. C. 15 to 30 per minute. D. 25 to 50 per minute." "D. all of these are correct. You are treating a patient who initially had a chief complaint of severe difficulty breathing. You have concerns that this may be leading to respiratory failure. As you assess and manage the patient, you decide she is either not breathing or her breathing is inadequate. Thus, it will be necessary to provide: A. artificial ventilation. B. positive pressure ventilation. C. assistance with a bag-valve mask device. D. all of these are correct." "D. blood pressure. During the primary assessment, all of the following are assessed except: A. airway. B. mental status. C. circulation. D. blood pressure." "B. Evaluating extremity mobility Which is not a component of the primary assessment? A. Determining patient priority B. Evaluating extremity mobility C. Forming a general impression D. Assessing breathing" "B. holding pieces of a toy in his or her hand. When forming a general impression of a child's condition, the environment can provide clues. An example would be a child: A. complaining of nausea or vomiting. B. holding pieces of a toy in his or her hand. C. with a blood pressure of 120/80. D. with a rapid heartbeat." "C. blood pressure. When forming a general impression, the EMT takes into consideration all of the following except the patient's: A. position. B. age and sex. C. blood pressure. D. sounds." "B. assessing mental status. After forming a general impression, the next step of the primary assessment is: A. assessing breathing. B. assessing mental status. C. determining the priority of the patient. D. assessing the airway." "C. verbal. The "V" in AVPU stands for: A. virtual. B. visible. C. verbal. D. vertex." "B. painful. The "P" in AVPU stands for: A. pulse. B. painful. C. paralysis. D. parasthesia." "D. U. The lowest and the most serious mental status is: A. A. B. V. C. P. D. U." "B. administer high-concentration oxygen. If a patient's level of responsiveness is lower than "Alert," you should: A. apply a cervical collar. B. administer a high-concentration oxygen. C. place him or her in a recovery position. D. bandage all bleeding wounds." "C. has an open airway. If a patient is talking or crying, assume that the patient: A. is in little pain. B. has no life-threatening bleeding. C. has an open airway. D. has an "A" mental status." "C. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. If the patient is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8 breaths per minute, the EMT should: A. insert an oral airway. B. place the patient in a prone position. C. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. D. apply the PASG." "B. poor circulation. Pale and clammy skin indicates: A. nervous system damage. B. poor circulation. C. extremely high temperature. D. an airway problem." "A. high A patient who gives a poor general impression should be considered a _____ priority. A. high B. low C. delayed D. stable" "B. Nausea and vomiting Which one of the following is not an example of a high-priority condition? A. Difficulty breathing B. Nausea and vomiting C. A severed artery D. A mental status of "U"" "A. has a medical problem or a trauma problem. The primary assessment takes different forms, which depend on the age of the patient and whether he or she: A. has a medical problem or a trauma problem. B. is alert or conscious. C. has a history of diabetes. D. has a history of head injury." "C. capillary refill test. When evaluating circulation in infants, the EMT should use the: A. femoral pulse. B. distal pulse check. C. capillary refill test. D. radial pulse." "B. shouting and flicking his feet. The mental status of an unconscious infant is typically checked by: A. splashing cold water on him. B. shouting a flicking his feet. C. perorming a pin prick on the feet. D. applying a sternal rub." "B. A fever with a rash Which is not a high-priority condition? A. Shock B. A fever with a rash C. A complicated childbirth D. Severe pain anywhere" "A. manual stabilization of the head for a trauma patient. The difference between the general impression steps for a medical patient and those for a trauma patient is: A. manual stabilization of the head for a trauma patient. B. no SAMPLE is taken for a trauma patient. C. the medical patient is treated faster. D. the AVPU is not used for a medical patient." "C. a pertinent negative. The EMT documents that the chest pain patient denies shortness of breath. This is most appropriately termed: A. an informative objective. B. advisory information. C. a pertinent negative. D. run data information." "D. state one's personal opinion of the patient's condition. When writing the narrative section of a prehospital care report (PCR), the EMT should do all of the following except: A. use medical terminology correctly. B. avoid nonstandard abbreviations. C. write legibly and use correct spelling. D. state one's personal opinion of the patient's condition." "B. If it is not written down, you didn't do it. Which statement best describes an important concept of documentation? A. Always fill out a continuation sheet. B. If it is not written down, you didn't do it. C. It should include plenty of medical terms. D. Document everything you see." "A. document with a refusal-of-care form. If the patient does not wish to go to the hospital, the EMT should: A. document with a refusal-of-care form. B. take the patient to the hospital anyway. C. end the assessment immediately. D. call for another crew to subdue him." "B. omission. An important part of the assessment or care was not performed. This is called: A. submission. B. omission. C. inhibition. D. commission." "C. falsification. An EMT makes up a set of vitals for inclusion on the prehospital care report (PCR). This is called: A. assault. B. libel. C. falsification. D. battery." "C. one that describes observable or measurable information. An objective statement is: A. one that is made from a particular point of view. B. one that is made by the patient or a family member. C. one that describes observable or measurable information. D. one's own assessment of what is wrong with the patient." "A. objective information. The EMT writes "The patient is alert and oriented" on the prehospital care report (PCR). This is an example of: A. objective information. B. a statement beyond his or her training. C. subjective information. D. nonfactual information." "D. use quotes around the statement. When you are documenting exactly what a patient told you on the prehospital care report (PCR), you should: A. paraphrase for brevity. B. summarize the key points. C. use medical terminology. D. use quotes around the statement." "A. not relevant. Writing a statement such as "The patient's daughter was rude to us" on a prehospital care report (PCR) is: A. not relevant. B. objective information. C. run data information. D. an example of what should be included in quotes." "A. ensure an open airway. The next step in the primary assessment after establishing unresponsiveness is to: A. ensure an open airway. B. check for adequate breathing. C. check for circulation. D. look for profuse bleeding." "A. an EMT's clinical judgement. The term "sixth sense" is used to describe: A. an EMT's clinical judgement. B. the six steps in a primary assessment. C. a patient's sensory functions. D. the ability to hear." "B. Skin temperature Which one of the following is a true vital sign? A. Nausea B. Skin temperature C. Level of responsiveness D. Age" "B. 60 to 100 The normal pulse rate for an adult at rest is between _____ beats per minute. A. 50 to 70 B. 60 to 100 C. 65 to 95 D. 80 to 100" "D. radial During the determination of vital signs, the initial pulse rate for patients 1 year of age and older is normally taken at the _____ pulse. A. carotid B. femoral C. pedal D. radial" "D. thready. When the force of the pulse is weak and thin, it is described as: A. shallow. B. full. C. partial. D. thready." "B. 12 to 20 Normal at-rest respiration rates for adults vary from _____ breaths per minute. A. 5 to 10 B. 12 to 20 C. 15 to 30 D. 20 to 32" "D. crowing. A noisy, harsh sound heard during inhalation that indicates a partial airway obstruction is: A. gurgling. B. snorting. C. stertorous respirations. D. crowing." "C. heart contracts. Systolic blood pressure indicates the arterial pressure created as the: A. artery contracts. B. artery relaxes. C. heart contracts. D. heart relaxes." "B. heart refills. Diastolic blood pressure indicates the arterial pressure created as the: A. heart contracts. B. heart refills. C. artery contracts. D. artery relaxes." "B. auscultation. The techniqur of measuring blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope is called: A. palpation. B. auscultation. C. oscillation. D. priaprism." "A. not as accurate as the auscultation method. Determining blood pressure by palpation is: A. not as accurate as the auscultation method. B. used when there is no noise around a patient. C. documented as the "palp/diastolic." D. used whenever the patient is hypertensive." "A. signs. Information that you can see, hear, feel, and smell is called: A. signs. B. sensations. C. symptoms. D. assessments." "B. patient's pertinent past history. When the EMT asks the patient "Have you recently had any surgery or injuries?" he is inquiring about the: A. patient's medications. B. patient's pertinent past history. C. events leading up to the illness. D. allergies that the patient may have." "A. patient's medications. When the EMT asks the patient "Are you on birth control pills?" she is inquiring about the: A. patient's medications. B. patient's pertinent past history. C. events leading up to the illness. D. allergies that the patient may have." "C. SAMPLE. An acronym used to remember what questions to ask about the patient's present problem and past history is: A. AVPU. B. DCAP-BTLS. C. SAMPLE. D. PEARL." "D. avoid asking the patient's age. When conducting a patient interview on an adult patient, the EMT should do all of the following except: A. position oneself close to the patient. B. identify oneself and reassure the patient. C. gently touch the patient's shoulder or rest a hand over the patient's hand. D. avoid asking the patient's age." "C. 60 to 80 Normal diastolic blood pressures range from _____ mmHg. A. 50 to 80 B. 50 to 90 C. 60 to 80 D. 60 to 90" "C. 136 Using the formula presented in the text, a 36-year-old man would have an estimated systolic blood pressure of _____ mmHg. A. 116 B. 126 C. 136 D. 146" "B. 116 Using the formula presented in the text, a 26-year-old woman would have an estimated systolic blood pressure of _____ mmHg. A. 106 B. 116 C. 126 D. 136" "A. It may give a false reading. Why should the stethoscope not be placed under the cuff and then inflated when evaluating the blood pressure? A. It may give a false reading. B. It can dent the stethoscope. C. The patient will not like the feeling. D. It will prevent pumping the cuff to the proper pressure." "C. brachial When taking a patient's blood pressure, the stethoscope is placed over the _____ artery. A. carotid B. radial C. brachial D. femoral" "C. mechanism of injury (MOI). The best indication of potential injury is the: A. type of accident. B. type of injury. C. mechanism of injury (MOI). D. position of the patient." "B. 50 When there are no apparent hazards at the scene of a collision, the danger zone should extend _____ feet in all directions from the wreckage. A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100" "C. head In the up-and-over injury pattern, the patient is most likely to sustain _____ injuries. A. knee B. hip C. head D. leg" "C. index of suspicion. A keen awareness that there may be injuries based on the mechanism of injury (MOI) is called a(n): A. sixth sense. B. general impression. C. index of suspicion. D. kinesthetic sense." "C. discover and treat life-threatening conditions. The purpose of the primary assessment is to: A. take the patient's vital signs. B. gather information about the collision. C. discover and treat life-threatening conditions. D. obtain the patient's history." "C. reconsider the mechanism of injury (MOI). The first step in the focused history and physical exam for ANY trauma patient is to: A. make a status decision. B. check for an open airway. C. reconsider the mechanism of injury (MOI). D. treat life-threatening conditions." "C. abrasions. The "A" in DCAP-BTLS stands for: A. allergies. B. alert. C. abrasions. D. arrhythmia." "D. breathing rate. All of the following are clues that help an EMT determine the need for cervical immobilization except: A. mechanism of injury (MOI). B. level of responsiveness. C. location of injuries. D. breathing rate." "B. It evaluates areas of the body where the greatest threats to the patient may be. Which of the following is true of the rapid trauma assessment? A. It begins with examination of posterior body and ends with examination of the head. B. It evaluates areas of the body where the greatest threats to the patient may be. C. It is performed on a trauma patient who has no significant mechanism of injury. D. It includes careful examination of the face, eyes, ears, nose, and mouth." "A. A trauma patient with a significant mechanism of injury On which type of patient is the secondary assessment most often performed? A. A trauma patient with a significant mechanism of injury B. A trauma patient with no significant mechanism of injury C. A responsive medical patient D. An unresponsive medical patient" "A. ask the OPQRST questions. To obtain a history of a patient's present illness: A. ask the OPQRST questions. B. conduct the subjective interview. C. ask the SAMPLE questions. D. use the look, listen, feel, and smell method." "C. provokes. The "P" in OPQRST stands for: A. punctures. B. penetrations. C. provokes. D. pulses." "A. 3, 1, 2, 4 The steps in the focused history and physical exam of the unresponsive medical patient include the following: 1. Obtain baseline vital signs. 2. Gather the history of the present illness from bystanders and family. 3. Conduct a rapid physical exam. 4. Gather a SAMPLE history from bystanders and family. Which is the correct order in which these steps should be performed? A. 3, 1, 2, 4 B. 2, 3, 4, 1 C. 3, 2, 4, 1 D. 1, 2, 3, 4" "C. 15 For a stable patient, the EMT should perform the reassessment every _____ minutes. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20" "A. repeat the primary assessment. During the reassessment, whenever you believe there may have been a change in the patient's condition, you should immediately: A. repeat the primary assessment. B. transport the patient immediately. C. document trends in vital signs. D. repeat the rapid trauma assessment." "D. shock. Cool, clammy skin in a middle-aged male most likely indicates: A. high fever. B. exposure to cold. C. mild fever. D. shock." "D. your own safety. As an EMT, your overriding concern at all times is: A. the patient's safety. B. the safety of patients and bystanders. C. the patient's life. D. your own safety." "A. ears and nose for blood or clear fluids. During the secondary assessment of the head of a trauma patient, inspect the: A. ears and nose for blood or clear fluids. B. inner surface of the eyelids. C. skin color of the cheeks. D. mouth for blood and clear fluids." "C. 8 Infants and young children under the age of _____ are abdominal breathers. A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12" "B. devices used to transmit radio signals over long distances. Repeaters are: A. phones that transmit radio signals over airwaves instead of wires. B. devices used to transmit radio signals over long distances. C. patients who consistently call 911. D. a type of cellular phone used in EMS." "C. Directly facing a patient Which of the following is an appropriate interpersonal communication technique? A. Standing above a patient B. Avoiding eye contact C. Directly facing a patient D. Standing with arms crossed" "B. Unit identification and level of provider What is the first item given to the hospital in your medical radio report to the receiving facility? A. The patient's age and sex B. Unit identification and level of provider C. Estimated time of arrival D. Emergency medical care given" "D. Patient's attitude Which of the following is not considered an essential component of the verbal report to the receiving facility? A. Patient's chief complaint B. Additional treatment given en route C. Additional vital signs taken en route D. Patient's attitude" "C. The EMT paints a picture of the patient's problem in words. Which of the following is true of the medical radio report? A. The EMT uses codes to communicate patient information. B. The EMT makes sure to give his or her patient diagnosis. C. The EMT paints a picture of the patient's problem in words. D. The EMT speaks rapidly to limit transmission time." "D. avoid questioning the physician about the order. To avoid misunderstanding and miscommunication when speaking with medical direction, you should do all of the following except: A. give information clearly and accurately. B. repeat back the order you are given word for word. C. ask the physician to repeat the order if it is unclear. D. avoid questioning the physician about the order." "A. oral glucose. Medications that are carried on the ambulance and that EMTs can administer include activated charcoal, oxygen, and: A. oral glucose. B. nitroglycerin. C. epinephrine. D. all of these." "D. side effect. Any action of a drug other than the desired action is called a(n): A. contraindication. B. indication. C. reflex. D. side effect." "D. injected under the skin. When a drug is administered subcutaneously, the drug is: A. dissolved under the tongue. B. injected into a vein. C. rubbed into a muscle. D. injected under the skin." "D. They depend more on the diaphragm for respiration than adults do. Which of the following is true of the structure of infants' and children's airways? A. The trachea is more rigid and less flexible than an adult's. B. The tongue is proportionately smaller than an adult's. C. The cricoid cartilage is more rigid than and adult's. D. They depend more on the diaphragm for respiration than adults do." "A. 1 The means of providing artificial ventilation are: 1. Pocket face mask with supplemental oxygen 2. Two-person bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen 3. Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilator 4. One-person bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen. Which of these is the best method to use? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4" "B. 10-12 The adequate rate of artificial ventilations for a nonbreathing adult patient is _____ breaths per minute. A. 6-8 B. 10-12 C. 14-16 D. 18-20" "C. 12-20 The adequate rate of artificial ventilations for a nonbreathing infant or child patient is _____ breaths per minute. A. 8-10 B. 6-8 C. 12-20 D. 22-25" "A. Snoring or gurgling Which of the following respiratory sounds made by an unresponsive adult most likely indicates a serious airway problem requiring immediate intervention? A. Snoring or gurgling B. Slight wheezing C. Sniffling D. Whistling or grunting" "D. blue, cool, and clammy. The skin of a patient with inadequate breathing will most likely be: A. pale, cool, and dry. B. red, hot, and clammy. C. yellow, warm, and dry. D. blue, cool, and clammy." "C. sitting-up If a patient is experiencing breathing difficulty but is breathing adequately, it is usually best to place him in the _____ position. A. tripod B. supine C. sitting-up D. recovery" "C. Angina pectoris Which one fo the following is a name for adult chest pain due to a decreased blood supply to the heart muscle? A. Stroke B. Arrhythmia C. Congestive heart failure D. Angina pectoris" "C. coronary Most heart attacks are caused by the narrowing or occlusion of a _____ artery. A. cephalic B. brachial C. coronary D. carotid" "D. Acute myocardial infarction Which of the following is the condition in which a portion of the myocardium dies because of oxygen starvation? A. Angina pectoris B. Mechanical pump failure C. Cardiogenic shock D. Acute myocardial infarction" "B. arrhythmia. An irregular heart rhythm is called: A. mechanical pump failure. B. arrythmia. C. cardiogenic shock. D. congestive heart failure." "A. Bradycardia Which term applies to a pulse slower than 60 beats per minute? A. Bradycardia B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Tachycardia D. Atrial fibrillation" "C. tachycardia. An at-rest heart beating faster than 100 beats per minute is referred to as: A. bradycardia. B. ventricular fibrillation. C. tachycardia. D. atrial fibrillation." "A. Congestive heart failure Which of the following is the name for a condition caused by excessive fluid build-up in the lungs because of the inadequate pumping of the heart? A. Congestive heart failure B. Acute heart failure C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Chronic myocardial infarction" "D. position of comfort. The 52-year-old male conscious patient with a possible heart attack is best transported in the: A. recovery position. B. medical coma position. C. traumatic coma position. D. position of comfort." "A. hypoglycemia. A diabetic found with a weak, rapid pulse and cold, clammy skin who complains of hunger pangs suffers from: A. hypoglycemia. B. cardiogenic shock. C. hyperglycemia. D. ulcers." "B. Hyperglycemia Which of the following conditions frequently results in an acetone smell of the patient's breath? A. Stroke B. Hyperglycemia C. Ulcers D. Hypoglycemia" "A. oral glucose. A conscious hypoglycemic patient who is able to swallow is frequently administered: A. oral glucose. B. insulin. C. nitroglycerin. D. epinephrine." "C. treat her like any other patient with altered mental status. You are treating a 25-year-old female diabetic patient. If you cannot administer glucose gel because she is not alert enough to swallow, you should: A. wait until her mental status improves. B. contact medical direction immediately. C. treat her like any other patient with altered mental status. D. place her in a position of comfort." "C. forms antibodies. The first time a person is exposed to an allergen, the immune system: A. reacts violently. B. shuts down. C. forms antibodies. D. ignores the allergen." "C. respiratory distress. To be considered a severe allergic reaction, a patient must have signs and symptoms of shock and/or: A. a history of allergies. B. massive swelling. C. respiratory distress. D. increased blood pressure." "B. Treat for shock and transport immediately. A 21-year-old male patient has no history of allergies and is having his first allergic reaction. What action should you take? A. Consult