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Elsevier: CT Review Questions- Imaging Procedures And 100% Correct Answers With Explanations For Exam Preparation Graded A+.

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Which of the following is a typical protocol for a CT study of the brain for a patient with a history of dizziness? A. 10-mm × 10-mm sections from the skull base to the vertex B. 7-mm × 7-mm sections from the skull base to the posterior fossa C. 2.5-mm × 2.5-mm sections through the posterior fossa, 5 mm × 5 mm to vertex D. 1.5-mm × 1.5-mm sections from skull base to vertex - correct answersC (Patients with histories of headaches and/or dizziness should be evaluated for abnormalities of the inner ear. Thin sections (1 to 3 mm) are required through the posterior fossa in order to best demonstrate the small anatomic structures and improve image quality.) Which of the following describes the scout (localizer) projection used to prescribe an axial CT acquisition of the brain? A. Anteroposterior B. Submentovertical C. Lateral D. Posteroanterior - correct answersC (A lateral projection of the head, including from below the skull base through the vertex, is used as a scout image (scanogram) for a CT scan of the brain. CT systems utilizing automatic tube current modulation (ATCM) software may also require the acquisition of an anteroposterior (AP) scout or localizer projection.) Glioma is a general term used to describe a group of primary tumors. Consisting of malignant glial cells, gliomas occur in the: A. Oral cavity B. Kidney C. Brain D. Liver - correct answersC (The term glioma refers to the group of glial tumors that occur in the brain. Glial cells are connective neural cells that play a supportive role in the brain. There are several common types of gliomas, including astrocytomas and glioblastomas.) A - correct answersNumber 3 corresponds to which of the following? A. Nasopharynx B. Sphenoid sinus C. Ethmoid sinus D. Trachea A - correct answersWhich of the following numbers corresponds to the right lateral pterygoid plate? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 D (A coronal scout or pilot projection of the head may be obtained with the patient in either the supine or the prone position. In the supine position, the patient is instructed to hyperextend the neck by dropping the head back so that it rests on its vertex on a positioning support device. In the prone position, the patient is instructed to extend the neck with the head resting on the chin. Coronal CT images may be produced in either case with the imaging plane positioned parallel to the coronal plane of the patient's head.) - correct answersWhich of the following patient positions may have been used to produce this scout image of the head? A. Supine B. Lateral C. Prone D. Both A and C An extremely ____ window should be used to display images containing tissues with varying density ranges. - correct answersWide Which of the following areas of the head commonly becomes calcified? 1. Thalamus 2. Pineal gland 3. Choroid plexus A. 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - correct answersC Following the injection of intravenous contrast media during a CT examination of the brain, which of the following anatomic areas does not enhance? A. Anterior communicating artery B. Choroid plexus C. Posterior horn of lateral ventricle D. Dura mater - correct answersC (The posterior horn of the lateral ventricle contains cerebrospinal fluid and does not enhance following the intravenous administration of contrast material. Areas with a good blood supply, such as the cranial blood vessels, choroid plexus, and dura mater, do enhance during a contrast study of the brain.) Which of the following conditions or indications would not require the injection of iodinated contrast material for proper visualization during a CT examination of the brain? A. S/P MVA 3 days ago; R/O subdural hematoma B. Headaches; R/O meningioma C. Loss of vision; R/O astrocytoma D. Lung cancer; R/O metastases - correct answersA (Subdural hematomas caused by relatively recent trauma appear as hyperdense areas on CT images of the brain. Intravenous iodinated contrast media is not necessary for their visualization and may act to conceal them. Contrast media are extremely valuable for visualization of intracranial tumors.) Which of the following statements regarding the pituitary gland is false? A. It is sometimes referred to as the hypophysis cerebri. B. It is seated within the sella turcica. C. The infundibulum attaches it to the hypothalamus. D. It is responsible for the production of epinephrine. - correct answersD (The pituitary gland is responsible for the production of several hormones, including somatotropin and prolactin. It is the adrenal glands that play a role in the production and secretion of epinephrine (adrenaline)) Which of the following correctly describes the patient position relative to the gantry for a CT study of the brain? A. Supine, feet first B. Prone, feet first C. Supine, head first D. Prone, head first - correct answersC Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced in the: A. Tentorium cerebelli B. Pineal gland C. Corpus callosum D. Choroid plexuses - correct answersD (The cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the choroid plexuses that are located in each of the four ventricles of the brain.) A stereotactic unit would be used for which of the following specialized CT examinations? A. CT-guided fine-needle aspiration of an abdominal abscess B. 3D CT angiogram C. CT-guided biopsy of the brain D. Dual window scanning - correct answersC (Stereotactic biopsy units are specialized units designed specifically for CT-guided biopsies. They are most commonly used for intracranial lesions, for which precision and accuracy are extremely important.) Which of the following most accurately describes the proper position of the patient for a CT examination of the brain? A. Prone with head extended B. Supine with head extended C. Prone with chin down D. Supine with chin down - correct answersD (CT images of the brain should be acquired parallel to the skull base. Placing the patient in the supine position with the chin down facilitates the axial acquisition at an angle 15 degrees above the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML).) C - correct answersWhat anatomical structure of the brain is this individual pointing to? A. Fourth ventricle B. Vein of Galen C. Third ventricle D. Thalamostriate vein B - correct answersThe arrow in this image corresponds to which of the following? A. Cerebrum B. Vermis of the cerebellum C. Tentorium cerebelli D. Occipital lobe - correct answersThe circled region in this image corresponds to which of the following? A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Thalamus D. Globus pallidus C - correct answersArrow D corresponds to which of the following? A. Caudate nucleus B. Putamen C. Thalamus D. Globus pallidus A - correct answersWhich of the following arrows corresponds to the genu of the corpus callosum? In which of the following cranial nerves would an acoustic neuroma be found? A. Third B. Eighth C. Tenth D. Twelfth - correct answersB (An acoustic neuroma (schwannoma) arises from Schwann cells of the eighth cranial nerve, or the vestibulocochlear nerve. This type of cranial mass may be imaged with CT examinations of the internal auditory canals.) List the 12 cranial nerves in order. - correct answers1. Olfactory 2. Optic 3. Oculomotor 4. Trochlear 5. Trigeminal 6. Abducens 7. Facial 8. Vestibulocochlear 9. Glossopharyngeal 10. Vagus 11. Accessory 12. Hypoglossal *O*oh, *O*oh, *O*oh *T*o *T*ouch *A*nd *F*eel *V*ery *G*ood *V*elvet. *S*uch *H*eaven! Which of the following types of pathologic conditions cannot be easily diagnosed from a CT scan of the brain? A. Astrocytoma B. Traumatic hemorrhage C. Cerebral infarct D. Alzheimer's disease - correct answersD (Alzheimer's disease is not easily diagnosed from a CT scan of the brain. Alzheimer's disease may present with enlargement of the temporal horns but this is typically not specific on CT examinations.) A Panorex image of the face is referred to as a(n): A. Three-dimensional (3D) image B. Retrospective image C. Stereotactic image D. MPR image - correct answersD (Multiplanar reformation (MPR) describes the process of displaying CT images in a different orientation from the one used in the original reconstruction process. MPR images may be constructed in the coronal, sagittal, or any other two-dimensional plane. MPR images are typically formed from a vertical stack of contiguous, helically acquired axial CT images.) In an effort to reduce radiation exposure to the orbits during a CT examination of the brain, the gantry may be angled: A. Perpendicular to the hard palate. B. Parallel to the hard palate. C. 15 degrees superior to the infraorbital-meatal line (IOML). D. 15 degrees inferior to the infraorbital-meatal line (IOML). - correct answersC (Acquisition for a brain CT may be performed at an angle 15 degrees above the IOML, parallel to the skull base, to reduce orbital radiation dose and minimize beam-hardening artifact.) The abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid on the ventricles of the brain is called: A. Schwannoma B. Cranial abscess C. Arteriovenous malformation (AVM) D. Hydrocephalus - correct answersD (Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the cerebral ventricular system. It is typically a congenital disorder but may also be caused by cranial lesions, hemorrhage, and so on.) Unless the use of iodinated contrast media is contraindicated, which of the following pathologic conditions require(s) the administration of such media for optimal visualization on CT examination? 1. Suspected neoplasm 2. Arteriovenous malformation (AVM) 3. Acute hemorrhage A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - correct answersB (Noncontrast CT examinations of the brain are routinely indicated to diagnose intracranial hemorrhage or hematoma, because contrast enhancement may mask subtle signs of hemorrhage.) High-resolution CT examinations of the temporal bones and internal auditory canal should include which of the following technical parameters? 1. 5- to 7-mm section width 2. Small (less than 10 cm) targeted DFOV 3. Soft-tissue kernel A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - correct answersB (CT studies of the temporal bones and internal auditory canal require a high-resolution imaging technique. The tenets of high-resolution CT include thin sections (1 to 2 mm), a small targeted DFOV, and the use of a high-resolution algorithm (kernel) for reconstruction.) Which of the following technical parameters is NOT a necessary component of a high-resolution CT examination of the internal auditory canals (IAC)? A. 1-mm section width B. Targeted 10-cm DFOV C. Sagittal MIP images D. Bone algorithm - correct answersC (CT studies of the temporal bones and internal auditory canal require a high-resolution imaging technique. The tenets of high-resolution CT include thin sections (1 to 2 mm), a small targeted DFOV,

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Elsevier: CT Review Questions-
Imaging Procedures

Which of the following is a typical protocol for a CT study of the brain for a patient with a history of
dizziness?



A. 10-mm × 10-mm sections from the skull base to the vertex

B. 7-mm × 7-mm sections from the skull base to the posterior fossa

C. 2.5-mm × 2.5-mm sections through the posterior fossa, 5 mm × 5 mm to

vertex

D. 1.5-mm × 1.5-mm sections from skull base to vertex - correct answersC



(Patients with histories of headaches and/or dizziness should be evaluated for abnormalities of the inner
ear. Thin sections (1 to 3 mm) are required through the posterior fossa in order to best demonstrate the
small anatomic structures and improve image quality.)



Which of the following describes the scout (localizer) projection used to prescribe an axial CT acquisition
of the brain?



A. Anteroposterior

B. Submentovertical

C. Lateral

D. Posteroanterior - correct answersC



(A lateral projection of the head, including from below the skull base through the vertex, is used as a
scout image (scanogram) for a CT scan of the brain. CT systems utilizing automatic tube current
modulation (ATCM) software may also require the acquisition of an anteroposterior (AP) scout or
localizer projection.)

,Glioma is a general term used to describe a group of primary tumors. Consisting of malignant glial cells,
gliomas occur in the:



A. Oral cavity

B. Kidney

C. Brain

D. Liver - correct answersC



(The term glioma refers to the group of glial tumors that occur in the brain. Glial cells are connective
neural cells that play a supportive role in the brain. There are several common types of gliomas,
including astrocytomas and glioblastomas.)



A - correct answersNumber 3 corresponds to which of the following?



A. Nasopharynx

B. Sphenoid sinus

C. Ethmoid sinus

D. Trachea



A - correct answersWhich of the following numbers corresponds to the right lateral pterygoid plate?



A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5



D



(A coronal scout or pilot projection of the head may be obtained with the patient in either the supine or
the prone position. In the supine position, the patient is instructed to hyperextend the neck by dropping

,the head back so that it rests on its vertex on a positioning support device. In the prone position, the
patient is instructed to extend the neck with the head resting on the chin. Coronal CT images may be
produced in either case with the imaging plane positioned parallel to the coronal plane of the patient's
head.) - correct answersWhich of the following patient positions may have been used to produce this
scout image of the head?



A. Supine

B. Lateral

C. Prone

D. Both A and C



An extremely ____ window should be used to display images containing tissues with varying density
ranges. - correct answersWide



Which of the following areas of the head commonly becomes calcified?

1. Thalamus

2. Pineal gland

3. Choroid plexus



A. 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3 - correct answersC



Following the injection of intravenous contrast media during a CT examination of the brain, which of the
following anatomic areas does not enhance?



A. Anterior communicating artery

B. Choroid plexus

C. Posterior horn of lateral ventricle

D. Dura mater - correct answersC

, (The posterior horn of the lateral ventricle contains cerebrospinal fluid and does not enhance following
the intravenous administration of contrast material. Areas with a good blood supply, such as the cranial
blood vessels, choroid plexus, and dura mater, do enhance during a contrast study of the brain.)



Which of the following conditions or indications would not require the injection of iodinated contrast
material for proper visualization during a CT examination of the brain?



A. S/P MVA 3 days ago; R/O subdural hematoma

B. Headaches; R/O meningioma

C. Loss of vision; R/O astrocytoma

D. Lung cancer; R/O metastases - correct answersA



(Subdural hematomas caused by relatively recent trauma appear as hyperdense areas on CT images of
the brain. Intravenous iodinated contrast media is not necessary for their visualization and may act to
conceal them. Contrast media are extremely valuable for visualization of intracranial tumors.)



Which of the following statements regarding the pituitary gland is false?



A. It is sometimes referred to as the hypophysis cerebri.

B. It is seated within the sella turcica.

C. The infundibulum attaches it to the hypothalamus.

D. It is responsible for the production of epinephrine. - correct answersD



(The pituitary gland is responsible for the production of several hormones, including somatotropin and
prolactin. It is the adrenal glands that play a role in the production and secretion of epinephrine
(adrenaline))



Which of the following correctly describes the patient position relative to the gantry for a CT study of
the brain?



A. Supine, feet first

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