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NRNP 6635 / NRNP6635 Midterm Exam
– Psychopathology and Diagnostic
Reasoning 2025/2026 | Walden | Questions
and Verified Answers
1. A 28-year-old client presents with excessive worry, restlessness,
and difficulty concentrating for 8 months. Which DSM-5 diagnosis
is most likely?
A. Major Depressive Disorder
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. Panic Disorder
D. Social Anxiety Disorder
Answer: B
Rationale: Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is
characterized by excessive worry and symptoms like
restlessness and difficulty concentrating for at least 6 months
per DSM-5. MDD involves depressed mood, panic disorder
includes recurrent panic attacks, and social anxiety focuses on
social situations.
2. A client reports auditory hallucinations and disorganized speech.
Which assessment tool should the PMHNP use to confirm
schizophrenia?
A. Beck Depression Inventory
B. Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS)
C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder-7 (GAD-7)
D. Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale
Answer: B
Rationale: PANSS is a validated tool for assessing
schizophrenia symptoms, including positive (e.g.,
hallucinations) and negative symptoms. Other tools assess
depression or anxiety, not schizophrenia.
3. A 35-year-old client with insomnia, low energy, and anhedonia for
3 weeks meets DSM-5 criteria for:
A. Bipolar I Disorder
, 2
B. Major Depressive Disorder
C. Persistent Depressive Disorder
D. Cyclothymic Disorder
Answer: B
Rationale: MDD requires at least 2 weeks of symptoms like
anhedonia, low energy, and insomnia. Bipolar I involves
mania, persistent depressive disorder lasts 2 years, and
cyclothymic disorder involves milder, chronic mood swings.
4. A client with a history of trauma reports flashbacks and avoidance.
Which diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Acute Stress Disorder
B. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
C. Adjustment Disorder
D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Answer: B
Rationale: PTSD includes flashbacks and avoidance persisting
beyond 1 month after trauma, per DSM-5. Acute stress
disorder lasts less than 1 month, adjustment disorder lacks
specific trauma criteria, and GAD involves generalized worry.
5. A PMHNP is differentiating bipolar I from bipolar II. What is the
key distinguishing feature?
A. Presence of depressive episodes
B. Presence of manic episodes
C. Duration of symptoms
D. Severity of impairment
Answer: B
Rationale: Bipolar I requires at least one manic episode, while
bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes. Both include
depression, but mania is unique to bipolar I. Duration and
impairment are not primary differentiators.
6. A client with obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors is
diagnosed with OCD. Which neurotransmitter is primarily
implicated?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. GABA
D. Norepinephrine
Answer: B
NRNP 6635 / NRNP6635 Midterm Exam
– Psychopathology and Diagnostic
Reasoning 2025/2026 | Walden | Questions
and Verified Answers
1. A 28-year-old client presents with excessive worry, restlessness,
and difficulty concentrating for 8 months. Which DSM-5 diagnosis
is most likely?
A. Major Depressive Disorder
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. Panic Disorder
D. Social Anxiety Disorder
Answer: B
Rationale: Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is
characterized by excessive worry and symptoms like
restlessness and difficulty concentrating for at least 6 months
per DSM-5. MDD involves depressed mood, panic disorder
includes recurrent panic attacks, and social anxiety focuses on
social situations.
2. A client reports auditory hallucinations and disorganized speech.
Which assessment tool should the PMHNP use to confirm
schizophrenia?
A. Beck Depression Inventory
B. Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS)
C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder-7 (GAD-7)
D. Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale
Answer: B
Rationale: PANSS is a validated tool for assessing
schizophrenia symptoms, including positive (e.g.,
hallucinations) and negative symptoms. Other tools assess
depression or anxiety, not schizophrenia.
3. A 35-year-old client with insomnia, low energy, and anhedonia for
3 weeks meets DSM-5 criteria for:
A. Bipolar I Disorder
, 2
B. Major Depressive Disorder
C. Persistent Depressive Disorder
D. Cyclothymic Disorder
Answer: B
Rationale: MDD requires at least 2 weeks of symptoms like
anhedonia, low energy, and insomnia. Bipolar I involves
mania, persistent depressive disorder lasts 2 years, and
cyclothymic disorder involves milder, chronic mood swings.
4. A client with a history of trauma reports flashbacks and avoidance.
Which diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Acute Stress Disorder
B. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
C. Adjustment Disorder
D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Answer: B
Rationale: PTSD includes flashbacks and avoidance persisting
beyond 1 month after trauma, per DSM-5. Acute stress
disorder lasts less than 1 month, adjustment disorder lacks
specific trauma criteria, and GAD involves generalized worry.
5. A PMHNP is differentiating bipolar I from bipolar II. What is the
key distinguishing feature?
A. Presence of depressive episodes
B. Presence of manic episodes
C. Duration of symptoms
D. Severity of impairment
Answer: B
Rationale: Bipolar I requires at least one manic episode, while
bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes. Both include
depression, but mania is unique to bipolar I. Duration and
impairment are not primary differentiators.
6. A client with obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors is
diagnosed with OCD. Which neurotransmitter is primarily
implicated?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. GABA
D. Norepinephrine
Answer: B
