CPNP-PC Certified Pediatric Primary Care Nurse
Practitioner Board Exam | 2025/2026 Latest
Edition | Verified Questions with Correct Answers
| Graded A+
CPNP-PC Certified Pediatric Primary Care Nurse Practitioner Board Exam | Updated
2025/2026 edition with fully verified exam-based questions and correct answers. Key topics
include pediatric growth and development, health promotion and disease prevention, acute and
chronic illness management, diagnostic reasoning, pediatric pharmacology, screening and
immunizations, patient and family education, and professional/ethical practice in pediatric
primary care.
Overview
This comprehensive exam prep resource provides authentic CPNP-PC board exam questions
with 100% correct answers, ensuring alignment with the National Certification Board of
Pediatric Nurse Practitioners (PNCB) standards. Designed to help candidates master pediatric
assessment, apply evidence-based practice, and ensure safe, effective care delivery in primary
care pediatric settings. Graded A+ for accuracy and exam readiness.
Answer Format
Correct answers are highlighted in bold green. Each item is paired with a rationale to reinforce
pediatric clinical guidelines, strengthen critical thinking, and support board exam mastery.
CPNP-PC Certified Pediatric Primary Care Nurse Practitioner Board
Exam (175 Questions)
Question 1: What is the expected weight gain for a healthy newborn in the first 6
months of life?
A) 3-5 ounces per week
B) 5-7 ounces per week
C) 1-2 ounces per week
D) 8-10 ounces per week
B) 5-7 ounces per week
Rationale: Healthy newborns typically gain 5-7 ounces per week during the first 6 months,
reflecting adequate nutrition and growth per CDC growth charts.
Question 2: Which immunization is routinely administered at 2 months of age?
A) Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
,B) Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis (DTaP)
C) Varicella
D) Hepatitis A
B) Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis (DTaP)
Rationale: DTaP is part of the initial immunization series starting at 2 months per CDC
schedule to protect against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
Question 3: What is the first-line treatment for a 5-year-old with mild intermittent
asthma?
A) Inhaled corticosteroids
B) Short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) as needed
C) Oral prednisone
D) Long-acting beta-agonists
B) Short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) as needed
Rationale: Short-acting beta-agonists are first-line for mild intermittent asthma to relieve
acute symptoms, per NAEYC guidelines.
Question 4: Which physical finding is most suggestive of dehydration in a
3-year-old?
A) Moist mucous membranes
B) Sunken eyes and dry lips
C) Normal skin turgor
D) Increased urine output
B) Sunken eyes and dry lips
Rationale: Sunken eyes and dry lips are classic signs of dehydration in young children,
indicating fluid loss.
Question 5: What is the recommended screening tool for developmental
surveillance at 18 months?
A) Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)
B) Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ)
C) Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Inventory (PEDI)
D) Bayley Scales of Infant Development
B) Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ)
Rationale: ASQ is a validated, parent-completed tool used for developmental surveillance at 18
months per AAP guidelines.
Question 6: Which medication should be avoided in children with viral infections
due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Acetaminophen
C) Aspirin
D) Amoxicillin
C) Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin use in children with viral infections (e.g., influenza, varicella) is linked to
Reye’s syndrome, a rare but serious condition.
,Question 7: What is a primary health promotion strategy to prevent obesity in
school-age children?
A) Limiting physical education in schools
B) Promoting daily physical activity and balanced nutrition
C) Increasing screen time for educational purposes
D) Encouraging high-calorie snacks
B) Promoting daily physical activity and balanced nutrition
Rationale: Daily activity and balanced diets reduce obesity risk, aligning with AAP health
promotion guidelines.
Question 8: Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for confirming a urinary
tract infection in a 2-year-old with fever?
A) Urinalysis and urine culture
B) Abdominal ultrasound
C) Complete blood count (CBC)
D) Chest X-ray
A) Urinalysis and urine culture
Rationale: Urinalysis and culture confirm UTI by identifying bacteria and leukocytes in a
febrile toddler.
Question 9: What is the normal respiratory rate range for a healthy 4-year-old at
rest?
A) 12-20 breaths per minute
B) 20-30 breaths per minute
C) 30-40 breaths per minute
D) 40-50 breaths per minute
B) 20-30 breaths per minute
Rationale: The normal respiratory rate for a 4-year-old at rest is 20-30 breaths per minute,
per pediatric vital sign norms.
Question 10: Which intervention is priority for a 7-month-old with suspected
failure to thrive?
A) Immediate referral to a nutritionist
B) Prescribing growth hormone
C) Ordering a skeletal survey
D) Initiating physical therapy
A) Immediate referral to a nutritionist
Rationale: Nutritional assessment and support are priority to address underlying causes of
failure to thrive.
Question 11: What is the first-line antibiotic for a 6-year-old with acute otitis
media?
A) Azithromycin
B) Amoxicillin
C) Cephalexin
D) Ciprofloxacin
, B) Amoxicillin
Rationale: Amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic for acute otitis media due to its efficacy
against common pathogens, per AAP guidelines.
Question 12: Which developmental milestone is typically achieved by 24 months of
age?
A) Walking up stairs with assistance
B) Using two-word phrases
C) Riding a bicycle
D) Drawing a circle
B) Using two-word phrases
Rationale: Two-word phrases are a language milestone typically achieved by 24 months, per
CDC developmental milestones.
Question 13: What is a common clinical manifestation of iron deficiency anemia in
a toddler?
A) Hyperactivity
B) Pallor and lethargy
C) Increased appetite
D) Normal growth patterns
B) Pallor and lethargy
Rationale: Pallor and lethargy result from reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in iron
deficiency anemia.
Question 14: Which vaccine is recommended at 11-12 years to prevent human
papillomavirus (HPV)?
A) Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis (Tdap)
B) Meningococcal conjugate (MenACWY)
C) HPV (Gardasil 9)
D) Influenza
C) HPV (Gardasil 9)
Rationale: HPV vaccine is recommended at 11-12 years to prevent HPV-related cancers, per
CDC schedule.
Question 15: What is the initial management for a 4-year-old with a brief febrile
seizure?
A) Administer lorazepam
B) Ensure safety and monitor vital signs
C) Order an immediate MRI
D) Start intravenous fluids
B) Ensure safety and monitor vital signs
Rationale: Safety and monitoring are priority for brief febrile seizures, which typically resolve
without medication.
Question 16: Which physical finding on a 10-year-old suggests scoliosis?
A) Symmetrical rib cage
B) Uneven hip levels
Practitioner Board Exam | 2025/2026 Latest
Edition | Verified Questions with Correct Answers
| Graded A+
CPNP-PC Certified Pediatric Primary Care Nurse Practitioner Board Exam | Updated
2025/2026 edition with fully verified exam-based questions and correct answers. Key topics
include pediatric growth and development, health promotion and disease prevention, acute and
chronic illness management, diagnostic reasoning, pediatric pharmacology, screening and
immunizations, patient and family education, and professional/ethical practice in pediatric
primary care.
Overview
This comprehensive exam prep resource provides authentic CPNP-PC board exam questions
with 100% correct answers, ensuring alignment with the National Certification Board of
Pediatric Nurse Practitioners (PNCB) standards. Designed to help candidates master pediatric
assessment, apply evidence-based practice, and ensure safe, effective care delivery in primary
care pediatric settings. Graded A+ for accuracy and exam readiness.
Answer Format
Correct answers are highlighted in bold green. Each item is paired with a rationale to reinforce
pediatric clinical guidelines, strengthen critical thinking, and support board exam mastery.
CPNP-PC Certified Pediatric Primary Care Nurse Practitioner Board
Exam (175 Questions)
Question 1: What is the expected weight gain for a healthy newborn in the first 6
months of life?
A) 3-5 ounces per week
B) 5-7 ounces per week
C) 1-2 ounces per week
D) 8-10 ounces per week
B) 5-7 ounces per week
Rationale: Healthy newborns typically gain 5-7 ounces per week during the first 6 months,
reflecting adequate nutrition and growth per CDC growth charts.
Question 2: Which immunization is routinely administered at 2 months of age?
A) Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
,B) Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis (DTaP)
C) Varicella
D) Hepatitis A
B) Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis (DTaP)
Rationale: DTaP is part of the initial immunization series starting at 2 months per CDC
schedule to protect against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
Question 3: What is the first-line treatment for a 5-year-old with mild intermittent
asthma?
A) Inhaled corticosteroids
B) Short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) as needed
C) Oral prednisone
D) Long-acting beta-agonists
B) Short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol) as needed
Rationale: Short-acting beta-agonists are first-line for mild intermittent asthma to relieve
acute symptoms, per NAEYC guidelines.
Question 4: Which physical finding is most suggestive of dehydration in a
3-year-old?
A) Moist mucous membranes
B) Sunken eyes and dry lips
C) Normal skin turgor
D) Increased urine output
B) Sunken eyes and dry lips
Rationale: Sunken eyes and dry lips are classic signs of dehydration in young children,
indicating fluid loss.
Question 5: What is the recommended screening tool for developmental
surveillance at 18 months?
A) Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)
B) Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ)
C) Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Inventory (PEDI)
D) Bayley Scales of Infant Development
B) Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ)
Rationale: ASQ is a validated, parent-completed tool used for developmental surveillance at 18
months per AAP guidelines.
Question 6: Which medication should be avoided in children with viral infections
due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Acetaminophen
C) Aspirin
D) Amoxicillin
C) Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin use in children with viral infections (e.g., influenza, varicella) is linked to
Reye’s syndrome, a rare but serious condition.
,Question 7: What is a primary health promotion strategy to prevent obesity in
school-age children?
A) Limiting physical education in schools
B) Promoting daily physical activity and balanced nutrition
C) Increasing screen time for educational purposes
D) Encouraging high-calorie snacks
B) Promoting daily physical activity and balanced nutrition
Rationale: Daily activity and balanced diets reduce obesity risk, aligning with AAP health
promotion guidelines.
Question 8: Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for confirming a urinary
tract infection in a 2-year-old with fever?
A) Urinalysis and urine culture
B) Abdominal ultrasound
C) Complete blood count (CBC)
D) Chest X-ray
A) Urinalysis and urine culture
Rationale: Urinalysis and culture confirm UTI by identifying bacteria and leukocytes in a
febrile toddler.
Question 9: What is the normal respiratory rate range for a healthy 4-year-old at
rest?
A) 12-20 breaths per minute
B) 20-30 breaths per minute
C) 30-40 breaths per minute
D) 40-50 breaths per minute
B) 20-30 breaths per minute
Rationale: The normal respiratory rate for a 4-year-old at rest is 20-30 breaths per minute,
per pediatric vital sign norms.
Question 10: Which intervention is priority for a 7-month-old with suspected
failure to thrive?
A) Immediate referral to a nutritionist
B) Prescribing growth hormone
C) Ordering a skeletal survey
D) Initiating physical therapy
A) Immediate referral to a nutritionist
Rationale: Nutritional assessment and support are priority to address underlying causes of
failure to thrive.
Question 11: What is the first-line antibiotic for a 6-year-old with acute otitis
media?
A) Azithromycin
B) Amoxicillin
C) Cephalexin
D) Ciprofloxacin
, B) Amoxicillin
Rationale: Amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic for acute otitis media due to its efficacy
against common pathogens, per AAP guidelines.
Question 12: Which developmental milestone is typically achieved by 24 months of
age?
A) Walking up stairs with assistance
B) Using two-word phrases
C) Riding a bicycle
D) Drawing a circle
B) Using two-word phrases
Rationale: Two-word phrases are a language milestone typically achieved by 24 months, per
CDC developmental milestones.
Question 13: What is a common clinical manifestation of iron deficiency anemia in
a toddler?
A) Hyperactivity
B) Pallor and lethargy
C) Increased appetite
D) Normal growth patterns
B) Pallor and lethargy
Rationale: Pallor and lethargy result from reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in iron
deficiency anemia.
Question 14: Which vaccine is recommended at 11-12 years to prevent human
papillomavirus (HPV)?
A) Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis (Tdap)
B) Meningococcal conjugate (MenACWY)
C) HPV (Gardasil 9)
D) Influenza
C) HPV (Gardasil 9)
Rationale: HPV vaccine is recommended at 11-12 years to prevent HPV-related cancers, per
CDC schedule.
Question 15: What is the initial management for a 4-year-old with a brief febrile
seizure?
A) Administer lorazepam
B) Ensure safety and monitor vital signs
C) Order an immediate MRI
D) Start intravenous fluids
B) Ensure safety and monitor vital signs
Rationale: Safety and monitoring are priority for brief febrile seizures, which typically resolve
without medication.
Question 16: Which physical finding on a 10-year-old suggests scoliosis?
A) Symmetrical rib cage
B) Uneven hip levels
