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Exam (elaborations)

Multidimensional Care IV (NUR2755) – Rasmussen College – Final Exam Review (2024/2025)

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This document provides a complete review for the Final Exam of Multidimensional Care IV (NUR2755) at Rasmussen College. It covers advanced nursing concepts, patient care strategies, and clinical decision-making skills outlined in the MDC 4 curriculum. Updated for the 2024/2025 academic year, this study guide is designed to help students prepare thoroughly and succeed on their final exam.

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Uploaded on
September 1, 2025
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Written in
2025/2026
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Multidimensional Care IV (NUR2755)
– Rasmussen College – Final Exam
Review (2024/2025)
Section 1: Neurological Disorders (20 Questions)
1. A patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) has an intracranial pressure (ICP)
reading of 22 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?
a) Administer oxygen
b) Notify the healthcare provider
c) Encourage deep breathing
d) Administer analgesics
Answer: b) Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: An ICP above 20 mm Hg indicates increased intracranial pressure, a medical
emergency requiring immediate provider intervention to prevent brain herniation.
2. Which assessment finding indicates a worsening Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score
in a patient with a head injury?
a) Eye opening to verbal stimuli
b) No response to painful stimuli
c) Obeys verbal commands
d) Verbal response of oriented speech
Answer: b) No response to painful stimuli
Rationale: No response to painful stimuli indicates a severe decline in neurological
function, lowering the GCS score.
3. A patient with a spinal cord injury at C5 is at risk for which complication?
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Respiratory failure
c) Hypokalemia
d) Hypertension
Answer: b) Respiratory failure
Rationale: A C5 spinal cord injury affects the diaphragm, increasing the risk of
respiratory failure due to impaired breathing.
4. What is a key nursing intervention for a patient with myasthenia gravis
experiencing muscle weakness?
a) Restrict all physical activity
b) Administer pyridostigmine as prescribed
c) Encourage a high-sodium diet
d) Apply a heating pad to muscles
Answer: b) Administer pyridostigmine as prescribed
Rationale: Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, improves muscle strength in
myasthenia gravis by enhancing neuromuscular transmission.

,5. A patient with Parkinson’s disease reports tremors. Which medication is commonly
prescribed?
a) Levodopa-carbidopa
b) Metoclopramide
c) Furosemide
d) Insulin
Answer: a) Levodopa-carbidopa
Rationale: Levodopa-carbidopa increases dopamine levels, reducing tremors and rigidity
in Parkinson’s disease.
6. What is a key sign of a seizure in a patient with epilepsy?
a) Hypotension
b) Rhythmic muscle contractions
c) Bradycardia
d) Increased urine output
Answer: b) Rhythmic muscle contractions
Rationale: Seizures often present with tonic-clonic movements, characterized by
rhythmic muscle contractions.
7. A patient with a stroke in the left hemisphere is likely to experience which deficit?
a) Left-sided weakness
b) Right-sided weakness
c) Visual impairment
d) Hearing loss
Answer: b) Right-sided weakness
Rationale: A left hemisphere stroke affects the right side of the body due to contralateral
motor control.
8. What is the nurse’s priority for a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure?
a) Administer lorazepam as prescribed
b) Restrain the patient to prevent injury
c) Insert an oral airway
d) Encourage deep breathing
Answer: a) Administer lorazepam as prescribed
Rationale: Lorazepam is used to stop a seizure, prioritizing patient safety and seizure
cessation.
9. A patient with multiple sclerosis reports fatigue. What is a key nursing
intervention?
a) Encourage high-intensity exercise
b) Teach energy conservation techniques
c) Restrict fluid intake
d) Administer diuretics
Answer: b) Teach energy conservation techniques
Rationale: Fatigue in multiple sclerosis is managed by pacing activities and conserving
energy.
10. Which assessment finding indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
a) Widened pulse pressure
b) Tachycardia
c) Hypothermia

, d) Increased urine output
Answer: a) Widened pulse pressure
Rationale: Widened pulse pressure (e.g., high systolic, low diastolic) is a sign of
Cushing’s triad in increased ICP.
11. A patient with a brain tumor reports a headache worse in the morning. What is the
likely cause?
a) Dehydration
b) Increased intracranial pressure
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Hypotension
Answer: b) Increased intracranial pressure
Rationale: Morning headaches in brain tumor patients are often due to increased ICP
from lying flat overnight.
12. What is a key teaching point for a patient with a new shunt for hydrocephalus?
a) Avoid all physical activity
b) Report signs of infection or blockage
c) Restrict fluid intake
d) Apply heat to the shunt site
Answer: b) Report signs of infection or blockage
Rationale: Shunt complications like infection or blockage can be life-threatening and
require immediate reporting.
13. A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is at risk for which complication?
a) Respiratory muscle paralysis
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Hypokalemia
d) Hypertension
Answer: a) Respiratory muscle paralysis
Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome can cause ascending paralysis, affecting respiratory
muscles and leading to respiratory failure.
14. What is the nurse’s priority for a patient with a suspected stroke?
a) Administer aspirin
b) Perform a neurological assessment
c) Encourage oral intake
d) Monitor blood glucose
Answer: b) Perform a neurological assessment
Rationale: A rapid neurological assessment (e.g., FAST criteria) is critical to identify
stroke and expedite treatment.
15. A patient with Alzheimer’s disease exhibits sundowning. What is the nurse’s best
action?
a) Increase stimulation in the evening
b) Maintain a consistent routine
c) Restrict all visitors
d) Administer sedatives
Answer: b) Maintain a consistent routine
Rationale: A consistent routine reduces confusion and agitation in Alzheimer’s patients
during sundowning.

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