Pretest & Post-Test Questions with
Correct Answers (2024/2025)
Section 1: Airway Management and Respiratory
Emergencies
Question 1 (Multiple Choice)
A 45-year-old patient is found supine with pinpoint pupils, shallow respirations, and vomitus
around the mouth. What is the next course of action?
A) Initiate an IV and administer naloxone
B) Supplemental oxygen and suction
C) Obtain a blood glucose level
D) Begin BVM ventilations
Answer: B. Supplemental oxygen and suction
Rationale: Pinpoint pupils and shallow respirations suggest opioid overdose, but airway
management (suction and oxygen) is the priority to ensure patency before administering
naloxone.
Question 2 (Select All That Apply)
Which findings are most commonly associated with a pulmonary embolus? (Select all that
apply.)
A) Clear breath sounds
B) Tachypnea
C) Wheezing
D) Chest pain
E) Hypotension
Answers: A, B, D, E
Rationale:
o A, B, D, E: Pulmonary embolus typically presents with clear breath sounds,
tachypnea, chest pain, and hypotension due to impaired pulmonary blood flow.
o C: Wheezing is more associated with asthma or COPD.
Question 3 (Multiple Choice)
What condition is most likely to cause respiratory acidosis?
, A) Hyperventilation
B) Narcotic overdose
C) Fever
D) Anxiety
Answer: B. Narcotic overdose
Rationale: Narcotics induce respiratory depression, leading to CO2 retention and
respiratory acidosis (AMLS Page 95).
Question 4 (Multiple Choice)
A 20-year-old female presents with dyspnea, non-productive cough, chest tightness, and audible
wheezing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Asthma
C) Pneumonia
D) Heart failure
Answer: B. Asthma
Rationale: Dyspnea, chest tightness, and wheezing are textbook signs of asthma (AMLS
Page 83).
Question 5 (Multiple Choice)
Patients with a history of COPD presenting with acute shortness of breath are likely to have what
condition?
A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Angina pectoris
C) Angioedema
D) Hypertensive crisis
Answer: A. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Acute shortness of breath in COPD patients suggests pulmonary embolism
due to increased risk (AMLS Page 114).
Section 2: Cardiovascular Emergencies
Question 6 (Multiple Choice)
A 65-year-old female reports aching chest pain, progressively worse over days, with a
temperature of 38.3°C (100°F). What finding narrows the diagnosis to pericarditis?
A) Localized ST elevation
B) Global ST-segment elevation
, C) Q waves
D) T-wave inversion
Answer: B. Global ST-segment elevation
Rationale: Pericarditis is characterized by global ST-segment elevation on a 12-lead
ECG (AMLS Page 128).
Question 7 (Select All That Apply)
Which are signs of cardiogenic shock in a 50-year-old female with shortness of breath, pale,
moist, cool skin, BP 102/68, R 24, and crackles? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pale, moist, cool skin
B) Crackles on auscultation
C) Hypotension
D) Bradycardia
E) Increased respiratory rate
Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale:
o A, B, C, E: Pale, moist skin, crackles, hypotension, and tachypnea indicate
cardiogenic shock (AMLS Page 164).
o D: Bradycardia is not typical; tachycardia is common.
Question 8 (Multiple Choice)
What is the most likely cause of sharp pain in the right flank radiating to the groin in a 44-year-
old female with nausea, BP 152/94, P 104, R 16?
A) Appendicitis
B) Kidney stones
C) Pancreatitis
D) Aortic dissection
Answer: B. Kidney stones
Rationale: Sharp, radiating flank pain with nausea is characteristic of kidney stones.
Question 9 (Multiple Choice)
During compensatory shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is activated to cause:
A) Increased preload and sodium reabsorption
B) Decreased preload and afterload
C) Increased heart rate
D) Reduced blood volume
Answer: A. Increased preload and sodium reabsorption
Rationale: The RAAS increases sodium and water retention to maintain blood pressure
during shock (AMLS Page 146).