AMLS Advanced Medical Life Support –
Pretest & Post-Test Questions with
Correct Answers (2024/2025)
AMLS Pretest Questions
Question 1
A 28-year-old female presents with acute confusion, stiff neck, and headache. Vital signs are P
112, R 22, BP 144/88, SpO2 95%, T 102.3°F (39°C). What complication should the provider
anticipate?
A. Seizure
B. Stroke
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: A. Seizure
Rationale: The presentation of acute confusion, stiff neck, headache, and fever suggests
meningitis, which can lead to seizures due to cerebral irritation. Stroke is less likely without
focal neurological deficits, hypoglycemia is not supported by the symptoms, and pulmonary
edema is unrelated to this clinical picture.
Question 2
A 45-year-old male is found supine with pinpoint pupils, shallow respirations, and vomitus
around the mouth. What is the next appropriate action?
A. Initiate IV and administer naloxone
B. Supplemental oxygen and suction
C. Obtain blood glucose level
D. Begin bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilations
Correct Answer: B. Supplemental oxygen and suction
Rationale: Pinpoint pupils and shallow respirations suggest opioid overdose, but the immediate
priority is airway management due to vomitus and respiratory depression. Suctioning and
supplemental oxygen address airway and breathing, which take precedence in the AMLS
primary survey. Naloxone and glucose checks follow after securing the airway.
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Question 3
Which condition is most likely in a patient with COPD presenting with acute shortness of
breath?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Angina pectoris
C. Angioedema
D. Hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: A. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: Acute shortness of breath in a COPD patient is concerning for pulmonary embolism
(PE), a common complication due to immobility or hypercoagulability. PE presents with clear
breath sounds and tachypnea, unlike angina (chest pain), angioedema (swelling), or hypertensive
crisis (elevated BP).
Question 4
What is the hallmark finding of anaphylaxis?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Vasodilation
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: B. Vasodilation
Rationale: Anaphylaxis, a type I hypersensitivity reaction, causes systemic vasodilation due to
histamine release, leading to hypotension and flushed skin. Bradycardia and hypoglycemia are
not typical, and hemorrhage is unrelated.
Question 5
A 65-year-old female reports aching chest pain worsening over days, with a temperature of
38.3°C (100°F). What finding confirms pericarditis?
A. Pain relieved when supine
B. Pulsus alternans
C. S3 gallop
D. ST-segment elevation in all leads
Correct Answer: D. ST-segment elevation in all leads
Rationale: Pericarditis causes global ST-segment elevation on a 12-lead ECG due to diffuse
epicardial inflammation. Pain is typically worse when supine, pulsus alternans suggests heart
failure, and S3 is associated with fluid overload, not pericarditis.