PHARM ATI TEST QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+
A nurse on an oncology unit is preparing to monitors risks of continuous IV infusion of
administer doxorubicin to a client who has breast oxytocin to determine when to discontinue the
cancer. Prior to beginning the infusion, the nurse medication. Risks include fetal distress (fetal
verifies the client's current cumulative lifetime bradycardia) caused by hyper-stimulation of the
dose of the medication. For which of the uterus compromising blood flow to the fetus.
following reasons is this verification necessary? - Uterine contractions lasting longer than 90
ANSWER -c. An excess amount of seconds should prompt the nurse to discontinue
doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy the medication.
Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic antibiotic used in
the treatment of various cancers. Irreversible
cardiomyopathy with congestive heart failure can
result from repeated doses of doxorubicin, and A client's IV bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
prolonged use can also cause severe heart is empty, and the new bag has not arrived from
damage, even years after the client has stopped the pharmacy. Which of the following is the most
taking it. The maximum cumulative dose a client appropriate intervention for the nurse to make? -
should receive is 550 mg/m2 or 450 mg/m2with a ANSWER -Hang a bag of dextrose 10% in
history of radiation to the mediastinum. water (D10W) until the new bag of TPN is
delivered.
If TPN runs out or is not available to hang, then
the protocol requires that D10W is infused. D10W
A nurse is caring for a client who has is a hypertonic solution that will maintain glucose
thrombophlebitis and is receiving heparin by level and prevent rebound hypoglycemia.
continuous IV infusion. The client asks the nurse
how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve
the clot. Which of the following responses should
the nurse give? - ANSWER -Heparin does A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving
not dissolve clots. It stop new clots from forming. heparin by continuous IV infusion. Which of the
following medications should the nurse plan to
administer in the event of an overdose? -
ANSWER -Protamine
A nurse is providing education to a client who is Protamine reverses the effects of heparin and is
in labor and has a prescription for a continuous used in the event of an overdose.
IV infusion of oxytocin. Which of the information
should the nurse include? - ANSWER -
Your contractions will become stronger and more
frequent." A nurse gives a client morphine sulfate 2 mg IV
Oxytocin is diluted with sodium chloride and push after the client reports pain. The nurse
administered IV via an infusion pump device to evaluates the client 15 min after the injection.
induce or strengthen uterine contractions during Which of the following findings represent an
labor. The client who is receiving an oxytocin drip adverse effect? - ANSWER -espiratory rate
is closely monitored to promote a safe delivery of 8 breaths per minute.(
and prevent maternal and/or fetal complications.
The desired concentration of oxytocin medication The nurse's evaluation of the client's displaying
is determined by the desired labor contraction respiratory depression of 8 per minutes
pattern that should increase in frequency, represents an adverse effect of the morphine.
duration, and intensity. The nurse closely
,PHARM ATI TEST QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+
Continuous pulse oximetry should be applied to
the client, and oxygen administered as indicated
A nurse is preparing to administer by pulse oximetry status. Intubation or
hydromorphone 2.5 mg. The amount available is tracheotomy should be considered if adequate
5 mg/5 mL elixir. How many mL should the nurse oxygenation cannot be maintained.After
administer? (Round the answer to the nearest oxygenation status and airway have been
tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use evaluated, the nurse should administer SQ
a trailing zero.) - ANSWER -2.5 epinephrine at 1:1000 (usually 0.3 to 0.5 ml). This
dose may be repeated one time if no response is
achieved.After initiation of an IV access and
isotonic IV fluids at a keep vein open rate, IV
A postoperative client is receiving antihistamines and corticosteroids should be
hydromorphone HCL (Dilaudid) via a PCA pump administered. Antihistamines are generally
and reports continuous pain. Which of the administered first as onset of action takes a bit
following should be the nurse's initial action? - longer. By administering the antihistamines first,
ANSWER -Check the display on the PCA then followed by IV corticosteroids (which have
pump. an onset of action of generally less than 10 min),
The nurse needs to assess the display to the antihistamines have begun to work while
determine how much medication has been immediate relief is being offered by the
administered. Some clients are fearful of corticosteroids. If no response is seen at this
developing an addiction to narcotics and may be time, fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may be
reluctant to use the PCA. administered to help reverse the angioedema.
FFP has been shown to substantially improve
outcomes associate with angioedema.After
stabilization, the causative agent should be
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro permanently discontinued, and the client
(Humalog) to a client who has type 1 diabetes transferred to a monitored bed as applicable.
mellitus. Which of the following nursing actions is Most clients who have experienced angioedema
will remain hospitalized for 12 to 24 hr post event,
appropriate? - ANSWER -Inject the insulin
and the nurse should transfer the client upon
15 min before a meal.
stabilization to the critical care unit.
MY ANSWER
The appropriate nursing action is to administer
the insulin 15 min before a meal because insulin
lispro is a rapid-acting insulin and the client may
A nurse is preparing to administer total parental
develop hypoglycemia quickly if they don't eat.
nutrition (TPN) 1800 mL to infuse over 24 hr. The
nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how
many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest
whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies.
A client who has been taking losartan (Cozaar)
has a hoarse voice, swollen lips and tongue. Do not use a trailing zero.) - ANSWER -75
(Move the nursing actions into the box on the
right, placing them in the selected order of
performance. All steps must be used.) -
ANSWER -Maintaining an adequate airway A nurse in a substance abuse clinic is assessing
a client who recently started taking disulfiram.
and oxygen status is critical in any ACE or ARB
The client reports having discontinued the
treated patient experiencing angioedema.
, PHARM ATI TEST QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+
medication after experiencing severe nausea and prevent complications of alcohol withdrawal.
and vomiting. Which of the following reasons
should the nurse suspect to be a likely cause of
the client's distress? - ANSWER -The client
consumed alcohol while taking the medication. A nurse is teaching a client who has angina
MY ANSWER pectoris about starting therapy with SL
Disulfiram is given to clients who have a history nitroglycerin tablets. The nurse should include
of alcohol abuse. It produces a sensitivity to which of the following instructions regarding how
alcohol that results in a highly unpleasant to take the medication? - ANSWER -"Take
reaction when the client ingests even small one tablet at the first indication of chest pain."
amounts of alcohol. When combined with The client should take nitroglycerin as soon as he
alcohol, disulfiram produces nausea and feels pain, pressure, or tightness in his chest and
vomiting. not wait until his chest pain is severe.
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing
client who has heart failure. Which of the Cushing's Triad following a subdural hematoma.
following actions is appropriate? - Which of the following medications should the
ANSWER -Evaluating the client for nausea, nurse plan to administer? - ANSWER -
vomiting, and anorexia Mannitol 25%
Loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and blurred Cushing's Triad is an indication that the client is
or yellow vision may be signs of digoxin toxicity. experiencing increased intracranial pressure. The
nurse should administer mannitol 25%, an
osmotic diuretic that promotes diuresis to treat
cerebral edema.
After receiving TPN at 84 ml/hr continuously for
five days, a client in a state of confusion pulled
out their central line. Prior to notifying the
provider, the nurse should start a peripheral IV Mannitol 25%
and do which of the following? - ANSWER - Cushing's Triad is an indication that the client is
Hang an infusion 10% dextrose. experiencing increased intracranial pressure. The
The sudden withdrawal from the TPN (hypertonic nurse should administer mannitol 25%, an
solution) can cause the client to be experiencing osmotic diuretic that promotes diuresis to treat
hypoglycemia. Administering an infusion of 10% cerebral edema. - ANSWER -"You should
dextrose will adjust the client's blood glucose report any tendon discomfort you experience
levels. while taking this medication."
The nurse should instruct the client to report any
tendon discomfort as well as swelling or
inflammation of the tendons due to the risk of
A nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting tendon rupture.
signs of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the
following medications should the nurse plan to
administer? - ANSWER -Diazepam
MY ANSWER A client is scheduled to receive digoxin (Lanoxin).
Diazepam is prescribed to treat the symptoms Which of the following laboratory data is most
A nurse on an oncology unit is preparing to monitors risks of continuous IV infusion of
administer doxorubicin to a client who has breast oxytocin to determine when to discontinue the
cancer. Prior to beginning the infusion, the nurse medication. Risks include fetal distress (fetal
verifies the client's current cumulative lifetime bradycardia) caused by hyper-stimulation of the
dose of the medication. For which of the uterus compromising blood flow to the fetus.
following reasons is this verification necessary? - Uterine contractions lasting longer than 90
ANSWER -c. An excess amount of seconds should prompt the nurse to discontinue
doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy the medication.
Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic antibiotic used in
the treatment of various cancers. Irreversible
cardiomyopathy with congestive heart failure can
result from repeated doses of doxorubicin, and A client's IV bag of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
prolonged use can also cause severe heart is empty, and the new bag has not arrived from
damage, even years after the client has stopped the pharmacy. Which of the following is the most
taking it. The maximum cumulative dose a client appropriate intervention for the nurse to make? -
should receive is 550 mg/m2 or 450 mg/m2with a ANSWER -Hang a bag of dextrose 10% in
history of radiation to the mediastinum. water (D10W) until the new bag of TPN is
delivered.
If TPN runs out or is not available to hang, then
the protocol requires that D10W is infused. D10W
A nurse is caring for a client who has is a hypertonic solution that will maintain glucose
thrombophlebitis and is receiving heparin by level and prevent rebound hypoglycemia.
continuous IV infusion. The client asks the nurse
how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve
the clot. Which of the following responses should
the nurse give? - ANSWER -Heparin does A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving
not dissolve clots. It stop new clots from forming. heparin by continuous IV infusion. Which of the
following medications should the nurse plan to
administer in the event of an overdose? -
ANSWER -Protamine
A nurse is providing education to a client who is Protamine reverses the effects of heparin and is
in labor and has a prescription for a continuous used in the event of an overdose.
IV infusion of oxytocin. Which of the information
should the nurse include? - ANSWER -
Your contractions will become stronger and more
frequent." A nurse gives a client morphine sulfate 2 mg IV
Oxytocin is diluted with sodium chloride and push after the client reports pain. The nurse
administered IV via an infusion pump device to evaluates the client 15 min after the injection.
induce or strengthen uterine contractions during Which of the following findings represent an
labor. The client who is receiving an oxytocin drip adverse effect? - ANSWER -espiratory rate
is closely monitored to promote a safe delivery of 8 breaths per minute.(
and prevent maternal and/or fetal complications.
The desired concentration of oxytocin medication The nurse's evaluation of the client's displaying
is determined by the desired labor contraction respiratory depression of 8 per minutes
pattern that should increase in frequency, represents an adverse effect of the morphine.
duration, and intensity. The nurse closely
,PHARM ATI TEST QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+
Continuous pulse oximetry should be applied to
the client, and oxygen administered as indicated
A nurse is preparing to administer by pulse oximetry status. Intubation or
hydromorphone 2.5 mg. The amount available is tracheotomy should be considered if adequate
5 mg/5 mL elixir. How many mL should the nurse oxygenation cannot be maintained.After
administer? (Round the answer to the nearest oxygenation status and airway have been
tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use evaluated, the nurse should administer SQ
a trailing zero.) - ANSWER -2.5 epinephrine at 1:1000 (usually 0.3 to 0.5 ml). This
dose may be repeated one time if no response is
achieved.After initiation of an IV access and
isotonic IV fluids at a keep vein open rate, IV
A postoperative client is receiving antihistamines and corticosteroids should be
hydromorphone HCL (Dilaudid) via a PCA pump administered. Antihistamines are generally
and reports continuous pain. Which of the administered first as onset of action takes a bit
following should be the nurse's initial action? - longer. By administering the antihistamines first,
ANSWER -Check the display on the PCA then followed by IV corticosteroids (which have
pump. an onset of action of generally less than 10 min),
The nurse needs to assess the display to the antihistamines have begun to work while
determine how much medication has been immediate relief is being offered by the
administered. Some clients are fearful of corticosteroids. If no response is seen at this
developing an addiction to narcotics and may be time, fresh frozen plasma (FFP) may be
reluctant to use the PCA. administered to help reverse the angioedema.
FFP has been shown to substantially improve
outcomes associate with angioedema.After
stabilization, the causative agent should be
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro permanently discontinued, and the client
(Humalog) to a client who has type 1 diabetes transferred to a monitored bed as applicable.
mellitus. Which of the following nursing actions is Most clients who have experienced angioedema
will remain hospitalized for 12 to 24 hr post event,
appropriate? - ANSWER -Inject the insulin
and the nurse should transfer the client upon
15 min before a meal.
stabilization to the critical care unit.
MY ANSWER
The appropriate nursing action is to administer
the insulin 15 min before a meal because insulin
lispro is a rapid-acting insulin and the client may
A nurse is preparing to administer total parental
develop hypoglycemia quickly if they don't eat.
nutrition (TPN) 1800 mL to infuse over 24 hr. The
nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how
many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest
whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies.
A client who has been taking losartan (Cozaar)
has a hoarse voice, swollen lips and tongue. Do not use a trailing zero.) - ANSWER -75
(Move the nursing actions into the box on the
right, placing them in the selected order of
performance. All steps must be used.) -
ANSWER -Maintaining an adequate airway A nurse in a substance abuse clinic is assessing
a client who recently started taking disulfiram.
and oxygen status is critical in any ACE or ARB
The client reports having discontinued the
treated patient experiencing angioedema.
, PHARM ATI TEST QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+
medication after experiencing severe nausea and prevent complications of alcohol withdrawal.
and vomiting. Which of the following reasons
should the nurse suspect to be a likely cause of
the client's distress? - ANSWER -The client
consumed alcohol while taking the medication. A nurse is teaching a client who has angina
MY ANSWER pectoris about starting therapy with SL
Disulfiram is given to clients who have a history nitroglycerin tablets. The nurse should include
of alcohol abuse. It produces a sensitivity to which of the following instructions regarding how
alcohol that results in a highly unpleasant to take the medication? - ANSWER -"Take
reaction when the client ingests even small one tablet at the first indication of chest pain."
amounts of alcohol. When combined with The client should take nitroglycerin as soon as he
alcohol, disulfiram produces nausea and feels pain, pressure, or tightness in his chest and
vomiting. not wait until his chest pain is severe.
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing
client who has heart failure. Which of the Cushing's Triad following a subdural hematoma.
following actions is appropriate? - Which of the following medications should the
ANSWER -Evaluating the client for nausea, nurse plan to administer? - ANSWER -
vomiting, and anorexia Mannitol 25%
Loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and blurred Cushing's Triad is an indication that the client is
or yellow vision may be signs of digoxin toxicity. experiencing increased intracranial pressure. The
nurse should administer mannitol 25%, an
osmotic diuretic that promotes diuresis to treat
cerebral edema.
After receiving TPN at 84 ml/hr continuously for
five days, a client in a state of confusion pulled
out their central line. Prior to notifying the
provider, the nurse should start a peripheral IV Mannitol 25%
and do which of the following? - ANSWER - Cushing's Triad is an indication that the client is
Hang an infusion 10% dextrose. experiencing increased intracranial pressure. The
The sudden withdrawal from the TPN (hypertonic nurse should administer mannitol 25%, an
solution) can cause the client to be experiencing osmotic diuretic that promotes diuresis to treat
hypoglycemia. Administering an infusion of 10% cerebral edema. - ANSWER -"You should
dextrose will adjust the client's blood glucose report any tendon discomfort you experience
levels. while taking this medication."
The nurse should instruct the client to report any
tendon discomfort as well as swelling or
inflammation of the tendons due to the risk of
A nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting tendon rupture.
signs of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the
following medications should the nurse plan to
administer? - ANSWER -Diazepam
MY ANSWER A client is scheduled to receive digoxin (Lanoxin).
Diazepam is prescribed to treat the symptoms Which of the following laboratory data is most
