NR 507 – Advanced Pathophysiology
Comprehensive 102- Practice Questions and
answers Bank with 100% guaranteed pass already
graded A plus
1. In benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), which anatomical zone
of the prostate is predominantly affected?
A) Peripheral zone
B) Transitional zone
C) Periurethral zone [✓]
D) Anterior fibromuscular zone
2. The underlying cause of BPH relates to:
A) Increased testosterone conversion to dihydrotestosterone,
causing prostate cell proliferation [✓]
B) Decreased estrogen
C) Bacterial infection
D) Autoimmune inflammation
3. What are the characteristic features of hyperkalemia
indicating dialysis need?
A) Peaked T waves on ECG [✓]
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Low serum creatinine
4. Which stage of chronic kidney disease is characterized by a
severe decrease in GFR (15-29 mL/min)?
A) Stage 3
B) Stage 4 [✓]
C) Stage 2
D) Stage 5
5. A patient with Graves’ disease will show which of the
following pathophysiological mechanisms?
,A) Autoantibodies target the TSH receptor, causing increased
thyroid hormone production [✓]
B) Immune complexes deposit in thyroid tissue
C) Delayed hypersensitivity in the thyroid gland
D) Complement activation causes thyroid damage
6. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
A) Tachycardia, palpitations, diaphoresis, tremors [✓]
B) Increased appetite
C) Blurred vision only
D) Dry mouth
7. Cluster headaches primarily involve which cranial nerve?
A) Cranial nerve V
B) Cranial nerve VII [✓]
C) Cranial nerve III
D) Cranial nerve IX
8. What is the primary mechanism of injury in acute respiratory
distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) Obstructive airway disease
B) Alveolar-capillary membrane damage causing fluid leakage into
alveoli [✓]
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Hyperinflation of the lungs
9. Which electrolyte abnormality is associated with prolonged
QT interval?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia [✓]
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
10. What is the first step in the coagulation cascade?
A) Activation of factor X
B) Tissue factor (extrinsic pathway) release [✓]
, C) Fibrinogen cleavage
D) Platelet aggregation
11. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis will present with:
A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis with elevated ketones [✓]
C) Respiratory alkalosis
D) Normal ABGs
12. The compensatory mechanism in early hypovolemic shock
is:
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased sympathetic tone leading to tachycardia and
vasoconstriction [✓]
C) Increased urine output
D) Hypotension only
13. Which immunoglobulin is the first to respond during an acute
infection?
A) IgG
B) IgM [✓]
C) IgA
D) IgE
14. The hallmark of nephrotic syndrome is:
A) Hematuria
B) Proteinuria greater than 3.5 grams per day [✓]
C) Decreased creatinine clearance only
D) Urinary casts
15. Which cytokine is primarily responsible for fever?
A) Interleukin-1 (IL-1) [✓]
B) Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
C) Interferon-gamma
D) Interleukin-10
16. Which virus is most associated with triggering Guillain-Barre
syndrome?
Comprehensive 102- Practice Questions and
answers Bank with 100% guaranteed pass already
graded A plus
1. In benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), which anatomical zone
of the prostate is predominantly affected?
A) Peripheral zone
B) Transitional zone
C) Periurethral zone [✓]
D) Anterior fibromuscular zone
2. The underlying cause of BPH relates to:
A) Increased testosterone conversion to dihydrotestosterone,
causing prostate cell proliferation [✓]
B) Decreased estrogen
C) Bacterial infection
D) Autoimmune inflammation
3. What are the characteristic features of hyperkalemia
indicating dialysis need?
A) Peaked T waves on ECG [✓]
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Low serum creatinine
4. Which stage of chronic kidney disease is characterized by a
severe decrease in GFR (15-29 mL/min)?
A) Stage 3
B) Stage 4 [✓]
C) Stage 2
D) Stage 5
5. A patient with Graves’ disease will show which of the
following pathophysiological mechanisms?
,A) Autoantibodies target the TSH receptor, causing increased
thyroid hormone production [✓]
B) Immune complexes deposit in thyroid tissue
C) Delayed hypersensitivity in the thyroid gland
D) Complement activation causes thyroid damage
6. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
A) Tachycardia, palpitations, diaphoresis, tremors [✓]
B) Increased appetite
C) Blurred vision only
D) Dry mouth
7. Cluster headaches primarily involve which cranial nerve?
A) Cranial nerve V
B) Cranial nerve VII [✓]
C) Cranial nerve III
D) Cranial nerve IX
8. What is the primary mechanism of injury in acute respiratory
distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) Obstructive airway disease
B) Alveolar-capillary membrane damage causing fluid leakage into
alveoli [✓]
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Hyperinflation of the lungs
9. Which electrolyte abnormality is associated with prolonged
QT interval?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia [✓]
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
10. What is the first step in the coagulation cascade?
A) Activation of factor X
B) Tissue factor (extrinsic pathway) release [✓]
, C) Fibrinogen cleavage
D) Platelet aggregation
11. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis will present with:
A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis with elevated ketones [✓]
C) Respiratory alkalosis
D) Normal ABGs
12. The compensatory mechanism in early hypovolemic shock
is:
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased sympathetic tone leading to tachycardia and
vasoconstriction [✓]
C) Increased urine output
D) Hypotension only
13. Which immunoglobulin is the first to respond during an acute
infection?
A) IgG
B) IgM [✓]
C) IgA
D) IgE
14. The hallmark of nephrotic syndrome is:
A) Hematuria
B) Proteinuria greater than 3.5 grams per day [✓]
C) Decreased creatinine clearance only
D) Urinary casts
15. Which cytokine is primarily responsible for fever?
A) Interleukin-1 (IL-1) [✓]
B) Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
C) Interferon-gamma
D) Interleukin-10
16. Which virus is most associated with triggering Guillain-Barre
syndrome?
