NR547 Midterm Verified Multiple Choice and
Conceptual Actual Emended Exam Questions With
Reviewed 100% Correct Detailed Answers
Guaranteed Pass!!Current Update
1. A 40-year-old man with well-controlled hypertension presents with
complaints of inability to maintain an erection. He is currently taking
propranolol. What is the next best step?
A. Start sildenafil immediately
B. Switch propranolol to an alternative antihypertensive
C. Refer to urology without medication change
D. Begin testosterone supplementation
Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers like propranolol can cause ED; switching medications
may resolve symptoms.
2. A 32-year-old woman presents with decreased sexual desire and difficulty
becoming aroused for the past 7 months. She denies pain with intercourse and
reports no significant relationship stressors. Her past medical history is
unremarkable, and she is not taking any medications. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Female orgasmic disorder
B. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
C. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder
D. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
Answer:
C. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder
1. This diagnosis requires at least 6 months of reduced sexual interest/arousal
with ≥3 symptoms, such as absent/reduced sexual thoughts, decreased
initiation of sex, reduced pleasure, or reduced physical arousal.
,2. Female orgasmic disorder involves normal desire/arousal but difficulty
achieving orgasm.
3. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder involves pain, fear, or tightening
during intercourse.
4. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder is an older DSM-IV term that was merged
into female sexual interest/arousal disorder in DSM-5.
3. When beginning a sexual history, what is the most appropriate approach?
A. Ask if the patient is monogamous
B. Use medical jargon to show professionalism
C. Start with open-ended, non-judgmental questions
D. Focus only on history of STDs
Answer: C
Rationale: Sexual health assessment should begin with open-ended,
non-judgmental questions to build trust and gather comprehensive information.
4. Which framework is commonly recommended for taking a sexual history in
psychiatric practice?
A. SOAP
B. PLISSIT
C. HEADSS
D. CAGE
Answer: B
Rationale: The PLISSIT model (Permission, Limited Information, Specific
Suggestions, Intensive Therapy) is widely used in sexual health interviews.
5. During a psychiatric evaluation, a patient expresses embarrassment about
discussing sexual functioning. What is the best clinician response?
A. Change the topic immediately
B. Normalize the discussion by stating that sexual health is an important part
, of overall well-being
C. Ask if they would prefer not to discuss it
D. Suggest deferring the conversation indefinitely
Answer: B
Rationale: Normalizing sexual health discussions reduces stigma and
encourages honest disclosure.
6. Which of the following is most important to assess when evaluating female
sexual dysfunction?
A. The patient’s menstrual cycle length
B. Relationship quality and satisfaction
C. Family history of breast cancer
D. Dietary habits
Answer: B
Rationale: Relationship satisfaction is a strong predictor of sexual functioning
and is crucial for differential diagnosis.
7. When assessing male erectile dysfunction, which comorbidity is most
commonly associated?
A. Asthma
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Psoriasis
Answer: B
Rationale: Diabetes is a leading cause of erectile dysfunction due to vascular
and neuropathic complications.
8. A patient has persistent difficulty maintaining an erection during sexual
activity for 8 months. He has no significant relationship stressors and no
substance use. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder
B. Erectile disorder
C. Premature ejaculation
D. Sexual aversion disorder
, Answer: B
Rationale: Erectile disorder involves difficulty obtaining or maintaining
erections, lasting at least 6 months.
9. Female orgasmic disorder is diagnosed when:
A. A woman has no sexual fantasies for 2 months
B. A woman fails to achieve orgasm in 75% of sexual encounters over 6
months
C. There is pain during penetration
D. There is absence of sexual desire
Answer: B
Rationale: Female orgasmic disorder requires a persistent or recurrent delay,
infrequency, or absence of orgasm in ≥75% of encounters, lasting ≥6 months.
10.Premature ejaculation is defined as ejaculation occurring:
A. Within 1 minute of vaginal penetration in most encounters
B. At least 10 minutes after penetration
C. Only when intoxicated
D. Without orgasm
Answer: A
Rationale: DSM-5 defines premature ejaculation as occurring within ~1 minute
of penetration on most occasions for ≥6 months.
11.Which condition involves pain during intercourse along with fear and
involuntary tightening of pelvic muscles?
A. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder
B. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
C. Dyspareunia
D. Vaginismus
Answer: B
Rationale: DSM-5 merged vaginismus and dyspareunia into genito-pelvic
pain/penetration disorder.
Conceptual Actual Emended Exam Questions With
Reviewed 100% Correct Detailed Answers
Guaranteed Pass!!Current Update
1. A 40-year-old man with well-controlled hypertension presents with
complaints of inability to maintain an erection. He is currently taking
propranolol. What is the next best step?
A. Start sildenafil immediately
B. Switch propranolol to an alternative antihypertensive
C. Refer to urology without medication change
D. Begin testosterone supplementation
Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers like propranolol can cause ED; switching medications
may resolve symptoms.
2. A 32-year-old woman presents with decreased sexual desire and difficulty
becoming aroused for the past 7 months. She denies pain with intercourse and
reports no significant relationship stressors. Her past medical history is
unremarkable, and she is not taking any medications. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Female orgasmic disorder
B. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
C. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder
D. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
Answer:
C. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder
1. This diagnosis requires at least 6 months of reduced sexual interest/arousal
with ≥3 symptoms, such as absent/reduced sexual thoughts, decreased
initiation of sex, reduced pleasure, or reduced physical arousal.
,2. Female orgasmic disorder involves normal desire/arousal but difficulty
achieving orgasm.
3. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder involves pain, fear, or tightening
during intercourse.
4. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder is an older DSM-IV term that was merged
into female sexual interest/arousal disorder in DSM-5.
3. When beginning a sexual history, what is the most appropriate approach?
A. Ask if the patient is monogamous
B. Use medical jargon to show professionalism
C. Start with open-ended, non-judgmental questions
D. Focus only on history of STDs
Answer: C
Rationale: Sexual health assessment should begin with open-ended,
non-judgmental questions to build trust and gather comprehensive information.
4. Which framework is commonly recommended for taking a sexual history in
psychiatric practice?
A. SOAP
B. PLISSIT
C. HEADSS
D. CAGE
Answer: B
Rationale: The PLISSIT model (Permission, Limited Information, Specific
Suggestions, Intensive Therapy) is widely used in sexual health interviews.
5. During a psychiatric evaluation, a patient expresses embarrassment about
discussing sexual functioning. What is the best clinician response?
A. Change the topic immediately
B. Normalize the discussion by stating that sexual health is an important part
, of overall well-being
C. Ask if they would prefer not to discuss it
D. Suggest deferring the conversation indefinitely
Answer: B
Rationale: Normalizing sexual health discussions reduces stigma and
encourages honest disclosure.
6. Which of the following is most important to assess when evaluating female
sexual dysfunction?
A. The patient’s menstrual cycle length
B. Relationship quality and satisfaction
C. Family history of breast cancer
D. Dietary habits
Answer: B
Rationale: Relationship satisfaction is a strong predictor of sexual functioning
and is crucial for differential diagnosis.
7. When assessing male erectile dysfunction, which comorbidity is most
commonly associated?
A. Asthma
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Psoriasis
Answer: B
Rationale: Diabetes is a leading cause of erectile dysfunction due to vascular
and neuropathic complications.
8. A patient has persistent difficulty maintaining an erection during sexual
activity for 8 months. He has no significant relationship stressors and no
substance use. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder
B. Erectile disorder
C. Premature ejaculation
D. Sexual aversion disorder
, Answer: B
Rationale: Erectile disorder involves difficulty obtaining or maintaining
erections, lasting at least 6 months.
9. Female orgasmic disorder is diagnosed when:
A. A woman has no sexual fantasies for 2 months
B. A woman fails to achieve orgasm in 75% of sexual encounters over 6
months
C. There is pain during penetration
D. There is absence of sexual desire
Answer: B
Rationale: Female orgasmic disorder requires a persistent or recurrent delay,
infrequency, or absence of orgasm in ≥75% of encounters, lasting ≥6 months.
10.Premature ejaculation is defined as ejaculation occurring:
A. Within 1 minute of vaginal penetration in most encounters
B. At least 10 minutes after penetration
C. Only when intoxicated
D. Without orgasm
Answer: A
Rationale: DSM-5 defines premature ejaculation as occurring within ~1 minute
of penetration on most occasions for ≥6 months.
11.Which condition involves pain during intercourse along with fear and
involuntary tightening of pelvic muscles?
A. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder
B. Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
C. Dyspareunia
D. Vaginismus
Answer: B
Rationale: DSM-5 merged vaginismus and dyspareunia into genito-pelvic
pain/penetration disorder.
