a-IPC Exam Study Guide — Practice
Test #2 | 2025/2026 Edition | 100
Official-Format Questions & Correct
Solutions
Real Practice-Based Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Accuracy | Infection
Prevention and Control Certification | Graded A+
Introduction
This study resource presents 100 official-format multiple-choice questions with correct
solutions drawn from Practice Test #2 of the a-IPC (Associate – Infection Prevention and
Control) Exam — 2025/2026 Edition. Designed for candidates pursuing the a-IPC
certification from the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC), it
reflects the current exam structure and covers critical domains: infection control
fundamentals, epidemiology, disinfection and sterilization, surveillance, and outbreak
prevention strategies. The a-IPC is an entry-level credential for infection preventionists,
requiring a high school diploma or equivalent, and is valid for five years, with recertification
via examination. Questions align with CBIC’s 2025/2026 competencies, including CDC,
WHO, and APIC guidelines, ensuring candidates are well-prepared to pass and contribute to
healthcare safety.
Answer Format
All correct answers are clearly marked in bold and green for efficient review and confident
preparation.
a-IPC Practice Test #2 Questions 1–100: Infection
Prevention and Control
1. What is the primary goal of an infection prevention and control
program?
a) Reduce healthcare costs
b) Prevent and control the spread of infections
c) Improve patient satisfaction
d) Train all hospital staff
b) Prevent and control the spread of infections
,Rationale: The primary goal is to reduce healthcare-associated infections (HAIs) and protect
patients, staff, and visitors.
2. Which of the following is a healthcare-associated infection (HAI)?
a) Community-acquired pneumonia
b) Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)
c) Seasonal influenza
d) Foodborne illness
b) Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)
Rationale: CAUTI is an HAI caused by medical interventions in healthcare settings, unlike
community-acquired infections.
3. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infections in
healthcare settings?
a) Wearing gloves at all times
b) Hand hygiene
c) Using masks during procedures
d) Daily room cleaning
b) Hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene, per CDC and WHO guidelines, is the single most effective
measure to prevent pathogen transmission.
4. Which pathogen is most commonly associated with surgical site
infections (SSIs)?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Clostridium difficile
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Staphylococcus aureus
Rationale: S. aureus, including MRSA, is a leading cause of SSIs due to its prevalence on
skin and in healthcare environments.
5. What is the minimum contact time for alcohol-based hand sanitizers
to be effective?
a) 5 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) 60 seconds
b) 15 seconds
Rationale: CDC recommends rubbing hands with alcohol-based sanitizer for at least 15
seconds until dry.
6. What type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with active
tuberculosis?
, a) Contact precautions
b) Droplet precautions
c) Airborne precautions
d) Standard precautions
c) Airborne precautions
Rationale: TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei, requiring negative pressure rooms
and N95 respirators.
7. Which sterilization method is most commonly used for heat-sensitive
medical equipment?
a) Steam sterilization
b) Dry heat sterilization
c) Ethylene oxide sterilization
d) Boiling
c) Ethylene oxide sterilization
Rationale: Ethylene oxide is effective for heat-sensitive items like endoscopes, ensuring
sterility without damage.
8. What is the definition of an outbreak in a healthcare setting?
a) A single case of an infection
b) An increase in infection rates above the expected baseline
c) A seasonal rise in influenza cases
d) A decrease in infection rates
b) An increase in infection rates above the expected baseline
Rationale: An outbreak is defined by a statistically significant increase in cases compared to
normal rates.
9. What is the primary mode of transmission for Clostridium difficile?
a) Airborne
b) Droplet
c) Contact
d) Vector-borne
c) Contact
Rationale: C. difficile is spread via contact with contaminated surfaces or hands, often in
healthcare settings.
10. Which disinfectant is effective against bacterial spores?
a) Alcohol
b) Quaternary ammonium compounds
c) Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
d) Phenolics
c) Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
Rationale: Bleach is a sporicidal disinfectant, effective against resistant bacterial spores like
C. difficile.
Test #2 | 2025/2026 Edition | 100
Official-Format Questions & Correct
Solutions
Real Practice-Based Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Accuracy | Infection
Prevention and Control Certification | Graded A+
Introduction
This study resource presents 100 official-format multiple-choice questions with correct
solutions drawn from Practice Test #2 of the a-IPC (Associate – Infection Prevention and
Control) Exam — 2025/2026 Edition. Designed for candidates pursuing the a-IPC
certification from the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC), it
reflects the current exam structure and covers critical domains: infection control
fundamentals, epidemiology, disinfection and sterilization, surveillance, and outbreak
prevention strategies. The a-IPC is an entry-level credential for infection preventionists,
requiring a high school diploma or equivalent, and is valid for five years, with recertification
via examination. Questions align with CBIC’s 2025/2026 competencies, including CDC,
WHO, and APIC guidelines, ensuring candidates are well-prepared to pass and contribute to
healthcare safety.
Answer Format
All correct answers are clearly marked in bold and green for efficient review and confident
preparation.
a-IPC Practice Test #2 Questions 1–100: Infection
Prevention and Control
1. What is the primary goal of an infection prevention and control
program?
a) Reduce healthcare costs
b) Prevent and control the spread of infections
c) Improve patient satisfaction
d) Train all hospital staff
b) Prevent and control the spread of infections
,Rationale: The primary goal is to reduce healthcare-associated infections (HAIs) and protect
patients, staff, and visitors.
2. Which of the following is a healthcare-associated infection (HAI)?
a) Community-acquired pneumonia
b) Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)
c) Seasonal influenza
d) Foodborne illness
b) Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)
Rationale: CAUTI is an HAI caused by medical interventions in healthcare settings, unlike
community-acquired infections.
3. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infections in
healthcare settings?
a) Wearing gloves at all times
b) Hand hygiene
c) Using masks during procedures
d) Daily room cleaning
b) Hand hygiene
Rationale: Hand hygiene, per CDC and WHO guidelines, is the single most effective
measure to prevent pathogen transmission.
4. Which pathogen is most commonly associated with surgical site
infections (SSIs)?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Clostridium difficile
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Staphylococcus aureus
Rationale: S. aureus, including MRSA, is a leading cause of SSIs due to its prevalence on
skin and in healthcare environments.
5. What is the minimum contact time for alcohol-based hand sanitizers
to be effective?
a) 5 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) 60 seconds
b) 15 seconds
Rationale: CDC recommends rubbing hands with alcohol-based sanitizer for at least 15
seconds until dry.
6. What type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with active
tuberculosis?
, a) Contact precautions
b) Droplet precautions
c) Airborne precautions
d) Standard precautions
c) Airborne precautions
Rationale: TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei, requiring negative pressure rooms
and N95 respirators.
7. Which sterilization method is most commonly used for heat-sensitive
medical equipment?
a) Steam sterilization
b) Dry heat sterilization
c) Ethylene oxide sterilization
d) Boiling
c) Ethylene oxide sterilization
Rationale: Ethylene oxide is effective for heat-sensitive items like endoscopes, ensuring
sterility without damage.
8. What is the definition of an outbreak in a healthcare setting?
a) A single case of an infection
b) An increase in infection rates above the expected baseline
c) A seasonal rise in influenza cases
d) A decrease in infection rates
b) An increase in infection rates above the expected baseline
Rationale: An outbreak is defined by a statistically significant increase in cases compared to
normal rates.
9. What is the primary mode of transmission for Clostridium difficile?
a) Airborne
b) Droplet
c) Contact
d) Vector-borne
c) Contact
Rationale: C. difficile is spread via contact with contaminated surfaces or hands, often in
healthcare settings.
10. Which disinfectant is effective against bacterial spores?
a) Alcohol
b) Quaternary ammonium compounds
c) Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
d) Phenolics
c) Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
Rationale: Bleach is a sporicidal disinfectant, effective against resistant bacterial spores like
C. difficile.
