NR 667 FNP CAPSTONE 2024/2025 FULL ACTUAL EXAM
CURRENTLY TESTING QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE
ANSWERS
Question 1
pts
Your patient has been noticing progressively worsening muscular weakness over the past 15
months to the point he is not able to stand and is effectively wheelchair bound. Which of the
following diagnoses can reasonably be excluded?
Anterior cord syndrome
Correct!
Descending Guillain-Barre
Descending Guillain-Barre is much more rapid than the remaining items and within 15 months
would have likely resolved or caused death due to respiratory involvement if untreated. MS,
MG, or ALS are all reasonable options to consider in the differential diagnosis.
Multiple Sclerosis Myasthenia Gravis
Question 2
pts
A 28-year-old female requests contraceptive pills. The nurse practitioner knows that the patient
is not a candidate for estrogen-containing contraceptive if she:
Used to smoke ½ a pack of cigarettes per day
Correct!
Has a history of migraine headache with aura Has a history of fibrocystic breast disease
Drinks alcohol more than 3 days per week
,Estrogen fluctuations, particularly rapid changes in estrogen levels, can trigger migraines in
susceptible individuals. This is often seen during the menstrual cycle, where estrogen levels rise
and fall.
Question 3
pts
Your patient has a new diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease and presents after one month of
treatment to urgent care with acute hypotensive episode with a blood pressure of 90/44. Which
medication is likely responsible for this?
Benztropine use at therapeutic doses
Correct!
Carbidopa/levodopa overdose
Use of dopamine promoters in overdose may cause acute decrease in blood pressure.
Carbidopa/Levodopa (is a commonly used dopamine promoter.
Amantadine at subtherapeutic doses
Carbidopa/levodopa at subtherapeutic doses
Patients with inability to look inward and down on their left eye likely have a deficit of which
cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve VI
Correct!
Cranial nerve IV
Trochlear nerve IV is responsible for inward and down eye movement.
, Cranial nerve V Cranial nerve II
Question 4
pts
Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for shoulder shrug?
Cranial nerve XII Cranial nerve II
Correct!
Cranial nerve XI
Cranial nerve XI, the accessory spinal nerve is responsible for shoulder shrug.
Cranial nerve X
Question 5
pts
A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. She has no
hearing loss or tinnitus. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Start oral corticosteroids
Correct!
Prescribe meclizine Recommend bed rest
Refer for MRI of the brain
Meclizine is also used to alleviate nausea and vomiting associated with various conditions,
including inner ear disturbances, vertigo, and sometimes as a side effect of medications.
Question 6
, pts
The patient with urine output of 450 ml/hr for 6 hours straight despite only 100ml/hr of IV fluid
after being intubated for a head trauma with increased intracranial pressure should be treated
for which condition?
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non-ketotic coma
Correct!
Diabetes insipidus
Repression of ADH release in the pituitary gland creates this scenario and should be treated
with vasopressin.
Diabetes mellitus
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Question 7
pts
An 18-month-old child presents with a bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; T = 103°F
(39.4°C). Assessment also reveals a grade II/VI systolic murmur at the left sternal border. After
initiation of treatment for otitis media, the most appropriate intervention is to:
refer the patient to a cardiologist. obtain an EKG.
obtain an echocardiogram.
Correct!
reevaluate the patient in 10 days.
Heart murmurs in toddlers are relatively common and can be either innocent (benign) or
pathological (indicative of underlying heart conditions). Proper evaluation and monitoring are
essential to determine the nature of the murmur and to ensure the child’s health and
development are not adversely affected. Re-evaluating in 10 days is an appropriate next course
of action.
CURRENTLY TESTING QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE
ANSWERS
Question 1
pts
Your patient has been noticing progressively worsening muscular weakness over the past 15
months to the point he is not able to stand and is effectively wheelchair bound. Which of the
following diagnoses can reasonably be excluded?
Anterior cord syndrome
Correct!
Descending Guillain-Barre
Descending Guillain-Barre is much more rapid than the remaining items and within 15 months
would have likely resolved or caused death due to respiratory involvement if untreated. MS,
MG, or ALS are all reasonable options to consider in the differential diagnosis.
Multiple Sclerosis Myasthenia Gravis
Question 2
pts
A 28-year-old female requests contraceptive pills. The nurse practitioner knows that the patient
is not a candidate for estrogen-containing contraceptive if she:
Used to smoke ½ a pack of cigarettes per day
Correct!
Has a history of migraine headache with aura Has a history of fibrocystic breast disease
Drinks alcohol more than 3 days per week
,Estrogen fluctuations, particularly rapid changes in estrogen levels, can trigger migraines in
susceptible individuals. This is often seen during the menstrual cycle, where estrogen levels rise
and fall.
Question 3
pts
Your patient has a new diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease and presents after one month of
treatment to urgent care with acute hypotensive episode with a blood pressure of 90/44. Which
medication is likely responsible for this?
Benztropine use at therapeutic doses
Correct!
Carbidopa/levodopa overdose
Use of dopamine promoters in overdose may cause acute decrease in blood pressure.
Carbidopa/Levodopa (is a commonly used dopamine promoter.
Amantadine at subtherapeutic doses
Carbidopa/levodopa at subtherapeutic doses
Patients with inability to look inward and down on their left eye likely have a deficit of which
cranial nerve?
Cranial nerve VI
Correct!
Cranial nerve IV
Trochlear nerve IV is responsible for inward and down eye movement.
, Cranial nerve V Cranial nerve II
Question 4
pts
Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for shoulder shrug?
Cranial nerve XII Cranial nerve II
Correct!
Cranial nerve XI
Cranial nerve XI, the accessory spinal nerve is responsible for shoulder shrug.
Cranial nerve X
Question 5
pts
A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. She has no
hearing loss or tinnitus. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Start oral corticosteroids
Correct!
Prescribe meclizine Recommend bed rest
Refer for MRI of the brain
Meclizine is also used to alleviate nausea and vomiting associated with various conditions,
including inner ear disturbances, vertigo, and sometimes as a side effect of medications.
Question 6
, pts
The patient with urine output of 450 ml/hr for 6 hours straight despite only 100ml/hr of IV fluid
after being intubated for a head trauma with increased intracranial pressure should be treated
for which condition?
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non-ketotic coma
Correct!
Diabetes insipidus
Repression of ADH release in the pituitary gland creates this scenario and should be treated
with vasopressin.
Diabetes mellitus
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Question 7
pts
An 18-month-old child presents with a bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; T = 103°F
(39.4°C). Assessment also reveals a grade II/VI systolic murmur at the left sternal border. After
initiation of treatment for otitis media, the most appropriate intervention is to:
refer the patient to a cardiologist. obtain an EKG.
obtain an echocardiogram.
Correct!
reevaluate the patient in 10 days.
Heart murmurs in toddlers are relatively common and can be either innocent (benign) or
pathological (indicative of underlying heart conditions). Proper evaluation and monitoring are
essential to determine the nature of the murmur and to ensure the child’s health and
development are not adversely affected. Re-evaluating in 10 days is an appropriate next course
of action.
