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NCLEX FOR SHOCK - CRITICAL CARE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST VERSION 2025 VERIFIED

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NCLEX FOR SHOCK - CRITICAL CARE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST VERSION 2025 VERIFIED

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NCLEX FOR SHOCK - CRITICAL CARE QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS LATEST VERSION 2025 VERIFIED
GRADED A+
Which solution would be the most appropriate initial volume replacement for a patient with severe GI
bleeding?

Which life-threatening complications would the nurse anticipate developing in the patient being treated
for hypovolemic shock?

Which laboratory finding should cause the nurse to suspect that a patient is developing hypovolemic
shock?

Which finding indicates that rehydration is complete and hypovolemic shock has been successfully
treated in a patient?

Which finding indicates that a patient is experiencing increased peripheral resistance and
vasoconstriction?

Which assessment finding indicates that an infusion of intravenous epinephrine 4 mcg/min is effective in
the treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock?

What will the nurse identify as symptoms of hypovolemic shock in a patient?

The nurse, caring for a patient recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, is planning interventions
to reduce the risk of which type of shock?

The nurse, caring for a patient in hypovolemic shock, will not utilize a hypotonic solution for fluid
resuscitation because hypotonic solutions:

The nurse should warm intravenous fluids when a rapid infuser is being utilized to prevent which
complication?

The nurse recognizes that which patient would be most likely to develop hypovolemic shock? A patient
with:

The nurse is preparing medications for a patient being treated for cardiogenic shock. Which medications
will the nurse most likely provide to this patient?

The nurse is explaining the mechanism of a pulmonary embolism to the family of a patient diagnosed
with the disorder. Place in order the steps the nurse will use to instruct the family about this disease
process.

The nurse is concerned that a patient is at risk for developing obstructive shock because of which
assessment findings?

The nurse is caring for a patient recovering from a spinal cord injury sustained during a motor vehicle
crash. What assessment findings indicate that the patient is developing neurogenic shock?

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

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,NCLEX FOR SHOCK - CRITICAL CARE QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS LATEST VERSION 2025 VERIFIED
GRADED A+
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Rationale 6: When the blood is backed up and is not being pumped into the general circulation, tissue
perfusion is reduced.

Rationale 5: Warm dry skin is not a manifestation of cardiogenic shock.

Rationale 5: This finding is not consistent with cardiogenic shock.

Rationale 5: Pulmonary embolism is not an etiology of distributive shock.

Rationale 5: Pulmonary edema is not an identified complication of hypovolemic shock.

Rationale 5: Phenylephrine is a vasopressor and may be used in the patient with cardiogenic shock who
is receiving dobutamine.

Rationale 5: Palpitations are not seen in neurogenic shock.

Rationale 5: Myocardial infarction is not a trigger for anaphylactic shock.

Rationale 5: Bradycardia is not present. The compensatory response is to increase the heart rate to
circulate the blood faster to make up for the fluids that are not present in hypovolemic shock.

Rationale 5: Antithrombolytic agents are not used in the treatment of anaphylactic shock.

Rationale 5: An increase in cardiac output is an expected effect of this medication and does not indicate
significant vasoconstriction.

Rationale 5: A latex allergy increases the risk for developing distributive shock and not obstructive shock.

Rationale 5: A lack of blood circulating will lead to hypotension.

Rationale 4: Vasopressin is not used in the treatment of anaphylactic shock.

, NCLEX FOR SHOCK - CRITICAL CARE QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS LATEST VERSION 2025 VERIFIED
GRADED A+
Rationale 4: This medication does not need to be administered with 0.9% normal saline.

Rationale 4: This medication does not cause a drop in blood pressure.

Rationale 4: This is a hypotonic solution and would not help with fluid resuscitation.

Rationale 4: This finding is not consistent with cardiogenic shock.

Rationale 4: Thirst is not a manifestation of cardiogenic shock.

Rationale 4: There is not a blockage of blood flow through the pulmonary circulation in cardiogenic
shock.

Rationale 4: The bore size of the needle does not affect the displacement or shifting of fluids.

Rationale 4: SvO2 (mixed venous oxygen saturation) would be less than 60% due to decreased circulating
blood volume or decrease in cells to carry the oxygen. Therefore, O2 is carried less efficiently and
decreased, not increased.

Rationale 4: Pulmonary edema would not be present in obstructive shock

Rationale 4: Pericarditis is not a risk factor for the development of cardiogenic shock.

Rationale 4: Parasympathetic innervation functioning unopposed is not a characteristic of an
anaphylactic reaction.

Rationale 4: Overhydration does not lead to hypovolemic shock. It leads to fluid overload, which might
cause cardiogenic shock, congestive heart failure, and pulmonary edema.

Rationale 4: Oliguria is seen in other causes of obstructive shock and is not a symptom that differentiates
the cause as being from a pulmonary embolus.

Rationale 4: Hemorrhage is not an etiology of distributive shock.

Rationale 4: Hematocrit (Hct) is the percentage of the number of RBCs per fluid volume. The normal
range is 35% to 45% for an adult. The higher percentage represents a decreased fluid-to-cell ratio, which
implies a fluid deficit and rehydration is not complete. An Hct of 54% is critical and increases the risk of
clots, strokes, and other vessel obstruction from potential hemolysis and sluggishness of cellular
movements.

Rationale 4: Epinephrine lowers the respiratory rate. This respiratory rate indicates that epinephrine has
not been effective.

Rationale 4: Epinephrine is not used in the treatment of cardiogenic shock.

Rationale 4: Due to decreased blood flow to the brain and peripheral areas when blood is shunted to
maintain the vital organs, capillary refill time will be reduced.

Rationale 4: Decreased peripheral pulses is a side/toxic effect of this medication.

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