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CEA Prep Full Exam
Testbank 2025/2026
Verified Questions And
Answers With Real Solutions
,For more files >>> Tutor3570@ g mail .com
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a
left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib
spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe ⬛ ANS Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe
lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the
following diagnoses? ⬛ ANS Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction
and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has
been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and
exercising more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe
him? ⬛ ANS Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management
therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is
considered standard of care for serial surveillance? ⬛ ANS CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular luminal
dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able
to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is
,For more files >>> Tutor3570@ g mail .com
not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? ⬛ ANS phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all have beta
receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung
auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? ⬛ ANS Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure as it is
signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung
assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an acute
myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only
describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The
only appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection
fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial
infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior
descending artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which
medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care? ⬛ ANS Ordering a
transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of
sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD
in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2 -3 months to re-evaluate
for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at
discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2 -3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented.
Which of the following people groups represent the least risk of cardiac disease? ⬛ ANS
Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at
increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than
Caucasians.
, For more files >>> Tutor3570@ g mail .com
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a smoker, and her hypertension is
now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack. The
fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In addition to
starting therapeutic lifestyle changes, the nurse practitioner should start the patient on: ⬛ ANS a
statin drug.
Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors may be useful in reducing
ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker with premature coronary disease history (less
than age 65 for women), has hypertension and is far from an LDL goal, this patient is most certainly
a candidate for statin therapy, which represents the most aggressive therapy option of these four
listed.
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled hypertension? ⬛
ANS Peripheral neuropathy
Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it is only
directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic and is commonly found in non -hypertensive
diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by uncontrolled
hypertension.
Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all the following except? ⬛ ANS
Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all represent modifiable risk
factors and should be the focus of preventive care. Non-modifiable risk factors such as age, gender,
genetic/family history should not be the primary focus of prevention.
A 33-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and obesity. Laboratory
tests reveal elevated serum testosterone and LH ratio > 2:1. What is the most appropriate initial
treatment? ⬛ ANS Oral contraceptives
Rationale: These are classic symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome and the patient should be
treated with oral contraceptives to help stabilize their estrogen and progesterone. Additionally, they
may be managed on metformin and/or spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first pharmacological treatment for polycystic ovary
syndrome (PCOS) because they help manage in several ways:
Menstrual irregularities: OCPs can help regulate menstrual cycles, making periods lighter and more
regular. This is important because irregular ovulation can lead to endometrial hyperplasia, which is a
buildup of uterine tissue that can increase the risk of uterine cancer.
CEA Prep Full Exam
Testbank 2025/2026
Verified Questions And
Answers With Real Solutions
,For more files >>> Tutor3570@ g mail .com
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a
left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib
spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe ⬛ ANS Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe
lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the
following diagnoses? ⬛ ANS Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction
and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has
been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and
exercising more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe
him? ⬛ ANS Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management
therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is
considered standard of care for serial surveillance? ⬛ ANS CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular luminal
dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able
to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is
,For more files >>> Tutor3570@ g mail .com
not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? ⬛ ANS phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all have beta
receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion and
orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung
auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? ⬛ ANS Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure as it is
signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and crackles on lung
assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an acute
myocardial infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only
describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The
only appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection
fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial
infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior
descending artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which
medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care? ⬛ ANS Ordering a
transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable automated
cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of
sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD
in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2 -3 months to re-evaluate
for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at
discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2 -3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented.
Which of the following people groups represent the least risk of cardiac disease? ⬛ ANS
Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at
increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than
Caucasians.
, For more files >>> Tutor3570@ g mail .com
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a smoker, and her hypertension is
now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack. The
fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In addition to
starting therapeutic lifestyle changes, the nurse practitioner should start the patient on: ⬛ ANS a
statin drug.
Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors may be useful in reducing
ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker with premature coronary disease history (less
than age 65 for women), has hypertension and is far from an LDL goal, this patient is most certainly
a candidate for statin therapy, which represents the most aggressive therapy option of these four
listed.
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled hypertension? ⬛
ANS Peripheral neuropathy
Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it is only
directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic and is commonly found in non -hypertensive
diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by uncontrolled
hypertension.
Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all the following except? ⬛ ANS
Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all represent modifiable risk
factors and should be the focus of preventive care. Non-modifiable risk factors such as age, gender,
genetic/family history should not be the primary focus of prevention.
A 33-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and obesity. Laboratory
tests reveal elevated serum testosterone and LH ratio > 2:1. What is the most appropriate initial
treatment? ⬛ ANS Oral contraceptives
Rationale: These are classic symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome and the patient should be
treated with oral contraceptives to help stabilize their estrogen and progesterone. Additionally, they
may be managed on metformin and/or spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first pharmacological treatment for polycystic ovary
syndrome (PCOS) because they help manage in several ways:
Menstrual irregularities: OCPs can help regulate menstrual cycles, making periods lighter and more
regular. This is important because irregular ovulation can lead to endometrial hyperplasia, which is a
buildup of uterine tissue that can increase the risk of uterine cancer.
