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NURS 684 FINAL EXAM VERSION 2 WCU 2025: 50 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

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NURS 684 FINAL EXAM VERSION 2 WCU 2025: 50 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

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July 16, 2025
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Written in
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NURS 684 FINAL EXAM VERSION 2 WCU
2025: 50 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS

Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics (Questions 1–15)
Question 1 (Multiple Choice)

Which organ is primarily responsible for drug excretion?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Lungs
D. Skin

Correct Answer: B. Kidneys
Explanation: The kidneys are the primary organ for excreting most drugs, especially water-
soluble compounds, via urine. The liver (A) metabolizes drugs, lungs (C) excrete volatile drugs,
and skin (D) has minimal role in excretion. web:6.

Question 2 (Multiple Choice)

What term describes the time it takes for a drug’s plasma concentration to decrease by 50%?
A. Bioavailability
B. Half-life
C. Clearance
D. Volume of distribution

Correct Answer: B. Half-life
Explanation: Half-life is the time required for a drug’s plasma concentration to reduce by 50%.
Bioavailability (A) is the fraction reaching circulation, clearance (C) is the rate of elimination,
and volume of distribution (D) is the drug’s spread in the body. web:6.

Question 3 (Select All That Apply)

Which factors affect drug absorption? (Select all that apply.)
A. Route of administration
B. Gastrointestinal pH
C. Blood flow to the absorption site
D. Patient’s age
E. Drug solubility

, Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Explanation: Absorption is influenced by the route (A), GI pH (B), blood flow (C), and drug
solubility (E). Age (D) affects metabolism and clearance more than absorption. web:6.

Question 4 (Multiple Choice)

A patient is prescribed a drug with a high first-pass effect. Which route minimizes this effect?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Rectal
D. Transdermal

Correct Answer: B. Intravenous
Explanation: Intravenous administration bypasses first-pass metabolism in the liver. Oral (A)
has the highest first-pass effect, while rectal (C) and transdermal (D) partially avoid it. web:6.

Question 5 (Case-Based)

Case: A 55-year-old male is prescribed phenytoin for seizures. His plasma levels are above the
therapeutic range.
Question: What is the most likely consequence?
A. Increased efficacy
B. Toxicity
C. No effect
D. Reduced absorption

Correct Answer: B. Toxicity
Explanation: Supratherapeutic phenytoin levels increase the risk of toxicity (e.g., ataxia,
nystagmus). Increased efficacy (A), no effect (C), or reduced absorption (D) are incorrect. web:6.

Question 6 (Multiple Choice)

What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril?
A. Block calcium channels
B. Inhibit angiotensin II formation
C. Antagonize beta receptors
D. Increase sodium excretion

Correct Answer: B. Inhibit angiotensin II formation
Explanation: ACE inhibitors block angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing angiotensin II and
blood pressure. Other options (A, C, D) describe different drug classes. web:6.

Question 7 (Multiple Choice)

Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is most commonly involved in drug metabolism?
A. CYP1A2

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