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ABFM Health Counseling and Preventive Care: Comprehensive Exam Prep with 60+ Questions & Verified Answers

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Ace Your ABFM Exam with Confidence! Unlock success with this high-yield study guide for ABFM Health Counseling and Preventive Care! Packed with 60+ meticulously crafted questions and 100% verified answers, this document is your ultimate weapon to dominate the exam and score a guaranteed A+! Why Choose This Document? Graded A+ – Trusted by top performers! Detailed Rationales – Understand why each answer is correct. Exam-Tested Content – Covers cardiology, pediatrics, geriatrics, STI counseling, obesity management, and more! Perfect for ABFM, USMLE Step 3, and FM residency prep! Key Topics Covered: Pediatric & Adult Preventive Care Vaccination Guidelines (HPV, Tdap, Influenza) Obesity & Diabetes Counseling Substance Abuse & Smoking Cessation Cancer Screening (Breast, Prostate, Ovarian) Hypertension & Lipid Management

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Uploaded on
July 14, 2025
Number of pages
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ABFM HEALTH COUNSELING AND PREVENTIVE CARE:
60+ QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES/ GRADED A+ / GUARANTEED
PASS!!




A 15-year-old female sees you for a sports preparticipation evaluation. She
has no known medical problems. There are no significant findings on her
personal history or family history.Important components of the
preparticipation evaluation for this patient include all of the following
EXCEPT


A. cardiac auscultation with the patient both standing and supine
B. evaluation of femoral pulses
C. vision and hearing screenings
D. a urinalysis
- answer-D

Explanation: Obtaining a urinalysis is not recommended in asymptomatic
individuals unless clinical signs such as elevated blood pressure warrant further
investigation. Cardiac auscultation to detect murmurs is important to assess for
any change in a heart murmur with a Valsalva type maneuver, which could
indicate hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Evaluation of femoral pulses can detect
coarctation of the aorta. It is appropriate to perform hearing and vision screenings
during a preparticipation evaluation.

A 2-month-old male is brought to your office by his parents for a well child visit.
They also have a 3-year-old son who is obese. The mother asks what to do to keep
the infant's weight under control over the next few years.Which one of the
following recommendations is supported by good evidence?

A. Excluding all juices from the diet until 4 years of age
B. Limiting juice intake to no more than 8 oz per day from 1-6 years of age
C. Restricting chocolate milk intake after 12 months of age

, D. Restricting whole milk and using reduced-fat or fat-free milk beginning at
12 months of age
- answer-D

Explanation: Pediatric obesity has become epidemic. Measures to prevent this
condition should be shared with parents as early as possible. For infants, major
recommendations to reduce the risk of obesity include breastfeeding (SOR A),
avoiding television and computer screen time (SOR C), avoiding premature
introduction of solid foods (SOR C), avoiding high-calorie beverages with low
nutritional value (SOR C), and educating parents to be role models of healthy
lifestyles (SOR C). Breastfeeding after the age of 12 months has been associated
with a 47% reduction in obesity. Cow's milk and fruit juice can be introduced at 12
months of age. Providing 100% fruit juice can be an important component of fruit
intake in children who may not be able to access fresh fruits and eliminating them
may cause nutritional deficiencies. It is important to only use 100% juice and to
not exceed 4-6 oz daily for children 1-6 years of age. When consumed within the
Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommendations, 100% fruit juice is not
associated with overweight/obesity or childhood dental caries and does not
compromise fiber intake. While there have been concerns in the past about low-fat
diets and their effect on brain development, low-fat or fat-free milk is appropriate
at this age, especially if there are concerns about obesity or a family history of
cardiovascular disease (SOR A). Evidence does not support restricting flavored
milk products to reduce the prevalence of obesity.

A 20-year-old male is brought to your office by friends a few hours after they went
dancing at a nightclub. His friends report that he has been combative and confused,
and that he keeps clenching his jaw. Examination reveals a temperature of 38.2°C
(100.8°F), a blood pressure of 160/94 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 108 beats/min.
He has a mildly ataxic gait.Which one of the following club drugs is the most
likely cause of these findings?

A. Flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)
B. GHB (γ-hydroxybutyrate)
C. Ketamine
D. MDMA (3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
- answer-D

MDMA, flunitrazepam, GHB, and ketamine are among the drugs used by teens and
young adults at nightclubs, bars, raves, or trance parties. Raves and trance parties
are generally nightlong dances, often held in warehouses. Many who attend these

,dances use club drugs in an effort to enhance the experience.MDMA is a synthetic
psychoactive drug that is chemically similar to the stimulant methamphetamine
and the hallucinogen mescaline. Street names for MDMA include ecstasy, XTC,
and hug drug. It is taken as a pill. Results from the 2018 National Survey on Drug
Use and Health showed that 7% of people over the age of 12 had used MDMA at
some time during their life and 1% had used it in the past year.MDMA users might
feel very alert or energetic at first. At raves they can dance for hours at a time.
They may also experience distortions in time and other changes in perception.
Some, however, can become anxious and agitated. Sweating or chills may occur,
and MDMA users may feel faint or dizzy. MDMA can interfere with the body's
temperature regulation, which can cause dangerous hyperthermia. Other effects on
the body include muscle tension, clenching of teeth, nausea, blurred vision,
fainting, and chills or sweating. MDMA increases heart rate and blood pressure
and can cause confusion, depression, sleep problems, intense fear, and anxiety. In
regular abusers some of these side effects can last for days or weeks after taking
MDMA.GHB, flunitrazepam, and ketamine have been referred to as date rape
drugs, since they have been used to facilitate sexual assault. These drugs can be
easily added to flavored drinks without the victim's knowledge. Symptoms of GHB
intoxication include relaxation, drowsiness, vision problems, nausea/vomiting,
headache, loss of consciousness, loss of reflexes, seizures, coma, and death.
Flunitrazepam ("roof

A 24-year-old female in the second trimester of her first pregnancy is concerned
that she may contract influenza and endanger her baby's health. Her due date is in
December and she plans to breastfeed. She has not received influenza vaccine in
the past because she develops hives if she eats eggs.Which one of the following
would be an appropriate recommendation?

A. She can safely receive trivalent inactivated influenza (TIV) vaccine prior to
the upcoming influenza season
B. She can safely receive live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV) prior to the
upcoming influenza season
C. She should not receive the vaccine this year due to her history of an allergic
reaction to eggs
D. She should not take oseltamivir (Tamiflu) for prophylaxis if she is exposed
to influenza prior to delivery
- answer-A

The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, the American Academy
of Family Physicians, and the CDC recommend influenza vaccine for all women

, who will be pregnant during influenza season. It has been shown to reduce the risk
of influenza-associated acute respiratory infection in pregnant women by about
one-half and reduces a pregnant woman's risk of being hospitalized with influenza
by an average of 40%. The CDC recommends use of injectable influenza vaccines,
including inactivated influenza vaccines and recombinant influenza vaccines. The
nasal spray vaccine, which is a live attenuated influenza vaccine, is not
recommended during pregnancy. Influenza vaccine is also recommended for
women who are breastfeeding (SOR A). Current CDC guidelines recommend
oseltamivir as the preferred treatment for pregnant women with suspected
influenza.People with egg allergies such as hives, but no previous reaction to
influenza vaccine in the past, no longer need to be observed for an allergic
reaction for 30 minutes after receiving influenza vaccine. Monitoring for 30
minutes may be done if this is the first time the patient has received influenza
vaccine but is not mandatory according to the CDC. Any licensed and
recommended influenza vaccine that is otherwise appropriate for the recipient's
age and health status may be used.Patients who report reactions to egg involving
symptoms other than hives, such as angioedema, respiratory distress,
lightheadedness, or recurrent emesis, or who required epinephrine or another
emergency medical intervention, may also receive any licensed and recommended
influenza vaccine that is otherwise appropriate for the recipient's age and health
status. If an egg-based vaccine is used, it should be administered in an inpatient or
outpatient medical setting, including, but not necessarily limit

A 24-year-old female sees you for a preconception visit and removal of her IUD.
This will be her first pregnancy and she tells you that she has smoked ¼-½ pack of
cigarettes a day for the past 5 years.Which one of the following would be
appropriate advice regarding the risks from smoking?

A. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of attention-
deficit/hyperactivity disorder
B. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of clubfoot
C. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of congenital atrial septal
defects
D. Stopping smoking now will reduce the increased risk of orofacial defects in
her infant
E. Reducing smoking now will reduce the risk of preterm delivery
- answer-D

There are many reproductive problems related to smoking, including conception
delay and both primary and secondary infertility; an increased risk of ectopic

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