ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2025/2026 –
160 Questions
Complete Questions and Verified Answers with Rationales | 100% Accurate | Graded A+
Introduction
This comprehensive file contains 160 fully verified questions and correct answers for the
ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2025/2026 exam. Developed to align with ATI testing
standards and current clinical guidelines, this resource strengthens pharmacological
understanding and enhances exam performance. Each question includes a brief rationale to
reinforce critical thinking and medication safety principles essential for NCLEX and clinical
practice.
Topics Covered
• Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
• Drug Classifications and Priority Medications
• Adverse Effects, Interactions, and Contraindications
• Dosage Calculations and Safe Administration
• Cardiovascular & Antihypertensive Medications
• Antibiotics, Antivirals, Antifungals
• Insulin, Oral Hypoglycemics, and Endocrine Drugs
• Pain Management: Opioids, NSAIDs, Adjuncts
• Mental Health Medications: SSRIs, Antipsychotics
• Emergency Medications and Antidotes
• Pediatric and Geriatric Considerations
• Immunizations and Chemotherapy Agents
All correct answers are highlighted in bold and green. Rationales are concise and clinically
focused, helping reinforce why each answer is correct.
ATI Capstone Pharmacology | 2025/2026 Questions
Question 1: What is the primary action of lisinopril?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Inhibits ACE to reduce blood pressure
C) Blocks calcium channels
D) Promotes sodium retention
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, blocks angiotensin II formation, reducing blood
pressure.
Question 2: A patient is prescribed warfarin. What is the priority nursing assessment?
A) Blood glucose levels
B) INR levels
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin A1c
Rationale: Warfarin requires INR monitoring to assess anticoagulation effectiveness.
,Question 3: What is a common adverse effect of metformin?
A) Hypertension
B) Gastrointestinal upset
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Bradycardia
Rationale: Metformin commonly causes GI side effects like nausea and diarrhea.
Question 4: A patient receives 10 units of regular insulin. When should the nurse expect the
peak effect?
A) 30 minutes
B) 2–4 hours
C) 6–8 hours
D) 12 hours
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks at 2–4 hours post-administration.
Question 5: What is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Naloxone
D) Flumazenil
Rationale: Protamine sulfate reverses heparin’s anticoagulant effects.
Question 6: A patient on morphine reports constipation. What should the nurse recommend?
A) Increase opioid dose
B) Stool softener or laxative
C) Discontinue morphine
D) Monitor without intervention
Rationale: Opioids cause constipation, requiring a stool softener or laxative.
Question 7: What is the therapeutic use of albuterol?
A) Pain relief
B) Bronchodilation for asthma
C) Blood pressure control
D) Blood glucose management
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, relieves bronchospasm in asthma.
Question 8: A patient is prescribed fluoxetine. What should the nurse monitor for?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Serotonin syndrome
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypotension
Rationale: Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can cause serotonin syndrome with overdose or interactions.
Question 9: How many mL should a nurse administer for a 500 mg dose of medication if the
concentration is 250 mg/mL?
A) 1 mL
B) 2 mL
C) 3 mL
D) 4 mL
Rationale: 500 mg ÷ 250 mg/mL = 2 mL.
, Question 10: What is a contraindication for administering ibuprofen?
A) Hypertension
B) Active peptic ulcer disease
C) Asthma without NSAID sensitivity
D) Diabetes
Rationale: Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcer disease due to GI irritation.
Question 11: A patient on digoxin reports nausea and blurred vision. What should the nurse
suspect?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Digoxin toxicity
C) Dehydration
D) Allergic reaction
Rationale: Nausea and blurred vision are signs of digoxin toxicity.
Question 12: What is the primary indication for furosemide?
A) Pain management
B) Diuresis for edema or hypertension
C) Anticoagulation
D) Bronchodilation
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, treats edema and hypertension.
Question 13: A patient is prescribed amoxicillin. What should the nurse advise?
A) Take with grapefruit juice
B) Complete the full course
C) Stop if symptoms resolve
D) Take on an empty stomach
Rationale: Completing the antibiotic course prevents resistance.
Question 14: What is a common side effect of prednisone?
A) Bradycardia
B) Weight gain
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypotension
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, causes weight gain due to fluid retention.
Question 15: A patient receives atropine in an emergency. What is its primary action?
A) Reduces pain
B) Increases heart rate
C) Lowers blood pressure
D) Reverses opioid overdose
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic, increases heart rate in bradycardia.
Question 16: What should a nurse monitor in a patient taking spironolactone?
A) Blood glucose
B) Potassium levels
C) Platelet count
D) INR
Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia.
160 Questions
Complete Questions and Verified Answers with Rationales | 100% Accurate | Graded A+
Introduction
This comprehensive file contains 160 fully verified questions and correct answers for the
ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2025/2026 exam. Developed to align with ATI testing
standards and current clinical guidelines, this resource strengthens pharmacological
understanding and enhances exam performance. Each question includes a brief rationale to
reinforce critical thinking and medication safety principles essential for NCLEX and clinical
practice.
Topics Covered
• Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
• Drug Classifications and Priority Medications
• Adverse Effects, Interactions, and Contraindications
• Dosage Calculations and Safe Administration
• Cardiovascular & Antihypertensive Medications
• Antibiotics, Antivirals, Antifungals
• Insulin, Oral Hypoglycemics, and Endocrine Drugs
• Pain Management: Opioids, NSAIDs, Adjuncts
• Mental Health Medications: SSRIs, Antipsychotics
• Emergency Medications and Antidotes
• Pediatric and Geriatric Considerations
• Immunizations and Chemotherapy Agents
All correct answers are highlighted in bold and green. Rationales are concise and clinically
focused, helping reinforce why each answer is correct.
ATI Capstone Pharmacology | 2025/2026 Questions
Question 1: What is the primary action of lisinopril?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Inhibits ACE to reduce blood pressure
C) Blocks calcium channels
D) Promotes sodium retention
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, blocks angiotensin II formation, reducing blood
pressure.
Question 2: A patient is prescribed warfarin. What is the priority nursing assessment?
A) Blood glucose levels
B) INR levels
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin A1c
Rationale: Warfarin requires INR monitoring to assess anticoagulation effectiveness.
,Question 3: What is a common adverse effect of metformin?
A) Hypertension
B) Gastrointestinal upset
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Bradycardia
Rationale: Metformin commonly causes GI side effects like nausea and diarrhea.
Question 4: A patient receives 10 units of regular insulin. When should the nurse expect the
peak effect?
A) 30 minutes
B) 2–4 hours
C) 6–8 hours
D) 12 hours
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks at 2–4 hours post-administration.
Question 5: What is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A) Vitamin K
B) Protamine sulfate
C) Naloxone
D) Flumazenil
Rationale: Protamine sulfate reverses heparin’s anticoagulant effects.
Question 6: A patient on morphine reports constipation. What should the nurse recommend?
A) Increase opioid dose
B) Stool softener or laxative
C) Discontinue morphine
D) Monitor without intervention
Rationale: Opioids cause constipation, requiring a stool softener or laxative.
Question 7: What is the therapeutic use of albuterol?
A) Pain relief
B) Bronchodilation for asthma
C) Blood pressure control
D) Blood glucose management
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, relieves bronchospasm in asthma.
Question 8: A patient is prescribed fluoxetine. What should the nurse monitor for?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Serotonin syndrome
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypotension
Rationale: Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can cause serotonin syndrome with overdose or interactions.
Question 9: How many mL should a nurse administer for a 500 mg dose of medication if the
concentration is 250 mg/mL?
A) 1 mL
B) 2 mL
C) 3 mL
D) 4 mL
Rationale: 500 mg ÷ 250 mg/mL = 2 mL.
, Question 10: What is a contraindication for administering ibuprofen?
A) Hypertension
B) Active peptic ulcer disease
C) Asthma without NSAID sensitivity
D) Diabetes
Rationale: Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcer disease due to GI irritation.
Question 11: A patient on digoxin reports nausea and blurred vision. What should the nurse
suspect?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Digoxin toxicity
C) Dehydration
D) Allergic reaction
Rationale: Nausea and blurred vision are signs of digoxin toxicity.
Question 12: What is the primary indication for furosemide?
A) Pain management
B) Diuresis for edema or hypertension
C) Anticoagulation
D) Bronchodilation
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, treats edema and hypertension.
Question 13: A patient is prescribed amoxicillin. What should the nurse advise?
A) Take with grapefruit juice
B) Complete the full course
C) Stop if symptoms resolve
D) Take on an empty stomach
Rationale: Completing the antibiotic course prevents resistance.
Question 14: What is a common side effect of prednisone?
A) Bradycardia
B) Weight gain
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypotension
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, causes weight gain due to fluid retention.
Question 15: A patient receives atropine in an emergency. What is its primary action?
A) Reduces pain
B) Increases heart rate
C) Lowers blood pressure
D) Reverses opioid overdose
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic, increases heart rate in bradycardia.
Question 16: What should a nurse monitor in a patient taking spironolactone?
A) Blood glucose
B) Potassium levels
C) Platelet count
D) INR
Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia.
