ESTUDYR
PTA PEAT PEAT EXAM PRACTICE EXAM 2025/2026 UPDATE/PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS(COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS)ASSURED SUCCESS/GRADED A+
Which joint is MOST likely affected in Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease?
A. Knee
B. Talonavicular
C. Subtalar
D. Hip
Rationale: Perthes disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in children, primarily involving the
hip joint.
A patient on total bed rest for 1 week will MOST likely exhibit which cardiopulmonary change?
A. Increased resting heart rate
B. Decreased submaximal exercise heart rate
C. Increased functional residual capacity
D. Decreased respiratory rate
Rationale: Deconditioning leads to tachycardia at rest.
A 1-year-old child flexes toes bilaterally when pulled to stand. The MOST concerning observation is:
A. Plantar reflex not integrated
B. Positive support reflex persistence
C. Babinski interfering with function
D. Stepping reflex interfering
Rationale: Persistent plantar (Babinski) beyond ~12 months suggests upper motor neuron lesion.
To clear pooled pulmonary secretions in a supine patient, the MOST effective position is:
A. Prone with head down 45°
B. Supine with head down 45°
C. Prone with head up 45°
D. Left side lying ¼ turn
Rationale: Trendelenburg prone drains anterior segments of lungs.
Subacute post-shoulder arthroplasty, the MOST appropriate advice for buttoning a shirt is:
A. Use unaffected arm only
B. Continue buttoning to increase function
C. Keep immobilizer on
D. Ask aide to button
Rationale: Controlled functional use promotes recovery.
Which cranial nerve requires both sensory and motor testing?
A. Oculomotor (III)
,ESTUDYR
B. Trochlear (IV)
C. Trigeminal (V)
D. Abducens (VI)
Rationale: CN V mediates facial sensation and masticatory muscle motor function.
A patient must stop walking to answer questions, indicating difficulty with which motor skill?
A. Serial
B. Discrete
C. Dual-task
D. Continuous
Rationale: Dual-tasking combines cognitive and motor demands, causing interruption.
Deep full-thickness burns involve damage to:
A. Epidermis only
B. Dermis only
C. Hair follicles only
D. Subcutaneous tissue
Rationale: Full-thickness extends through dermis into subcutaneous layer.
During the proliferative stage of MCL healing, AVOID which exercise?
A. Lunges with weights
B. Lateral step-ups
C. Flutter kicks in water
D. Hip adduction with band at ankle
Rationale: Excessive adduction strains healing MCL.
Quadriceps setting exercises are an example of:
A. Dynamic
B. Isotonic
C. Isometric
D. Isokinetic
Rationale: Muscle contracts without changing length.
A 60% monofilament score suggests sensory loss; MOST beneficial intervention is:
A. Ankle-foot orthosis
B. Desensitization
C. Balance training
D. Skin integrity education
Rationale: Preventing wounds in insensate feet is priority.
A flexion-force spinal injury with motor and pain/temperature loss below lesion indicates:
A. Cauda equina
B. Anterior cord syndrome
C. Central cord syndrome
,ESTUDYR
D. Brown-Séquard syndrome
Rationale: Anterior cord spares dorsal columns but injures anterior tracts.
The photographed upper extremity test (resisted wrist extension with elbow extended) assesses:
A. Lateral epicondylalgia
B. Medial epicondylalgia
C. De Quervain syndrome
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Rationale: Tennis elbow is provoked by resisted wrist extension.
In CRPS after distal radius fracture, which is CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Active ROM
B. Compression garment
C. TENS
D. Joint immobilization
Rationale: Immobilization worsens CRPS—movement is therapeutic.
Excessive knee flexion in early stance of a transtibial prosthesis is corrected by:
A. Anterior socket shift
B. Firmer heel cushion
C. Higher shoe heel
D. Increased ankle plantarflexion
Rationale: More plantarflexion delays tibial advancement, reducing knee flexion moment.
Unilateral hip pain/stiffness relieved by rest, limited flexion—most likely:
A. Parkinson disease
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Multiple sclerosis
Rationale: OA causes mechanical pain, stiffness, and limited ROM improved by rest.
Parkinson disease is characterized by which tremor?
A. Cerebellar
B. Intention
C. Festinating
D. Resting
Rationale: PD produces a pill-rolling resting tremor at rest, less with action.
Which transfer skill involves moving from sitting to standing?
A. Sit-to-stand
B. Lateral transfer
C. Dependent transfer
D. Sliding board transfer
Rationale: Sit-to-stand is a common functional mobility task.
, ESTUDYR
During gait, the phase from heel contact to foot flat is:
A. Mid-stance
B. Terminal stance
C. Loading response
D. Pre-swing
Rationale: Loading response immediately follows heel strike.
Which muscle primarily initiates shoulder abduction?
A. Deltoid
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Supraspinatus
D. Infraspinatus
Rationale: Supraspinatus initiates first 15° of abduction before deltoid takes over.
Optimal ankle dorsiflexion ROM for gait is:
A. 0–5°
B. 0–10°
C. 0–20°
D. 0–30°
Rationale: Around 10° dorsiflexion is needed for normal tibial progression.
Which heart sound corresponds to mitral valve closure?
A. S2
B. S3
C. S1
D. S4
Rationale: S1 marks onset of systole by closure of mitral and tricuspid valves.
Normal capillary refill time is:
A. < 1 second
B. < 2 seconds
C. 3–4 seconds
D. > 5 seconds
Rationale: Delayed refill suggests peripheral vascular compromise.
For patients with COPD, the optimal trunk position to improve dyspnea is:
A. Supine
B. Leaning forward on arms (tripod position)
C. Side lying
D. Prone
Rationale: Tripod enhances accessory muscle use and lung expansion.
Which nerve root is tested by ankle dorsiflexion strength?
A. L2–L3
PTA PEAT PEAT EXAM PRACTICE EXAM 2025/2026 UPDATE/PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS(COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS)ASSURED SUCCESS/GRADED A+
Which joint is MOST likely affected in Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease?
A. Knee
B. Talonavicular
C. Subtalar
D. Hip
Rationale: Perthes disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in children, primarily involving the
hip joint.
A patient on total bed rest for 1 week will MOST likely exhibit which cardiopulmonary change?
A. Increased resting heart rate
B. Decreased submaximal exercise heart rate
C. Increased functional residual capacity
D. Decreased respiratory rate
Rationale: Deconditioning leads to tachycardia at rest.
A 1-year-old child flexes toes bilaterally when pulled to stand. The MOST concerning observation is:
A. Plantar reflex not integrated
B. Positive support reflex persistence
C. Babinski interfering with function
D. Stepping reflex interfering
Rationale: Persistent plantar (Babinski) beyond ~12 months suggests upper motor neuron lesion.
To clear pooled pulmonary secretions in a supine patient, the MOST effective position is:
A. Prone with head down 45°
B. Supine with head down 45°
C. Prone with head up 45°
D. Left side lying ¼ turn
Rationale: Trendelenburg prone drains anterior segments of lungs.
Subacute post-shoulder arthroplasty, the MOST appropriate advice for buttoning a shirt is:
A. Use unaffected arm only
B. Continue buttoning to increase function
C. Keep immobilizer on
D. Ask aide to button
Rationale: Controlled functional use promotes recovery.
Which cranial nerve requires both sensory and motor testing?
A. Oculomotor (III)
,ESTUDYR
B. Trochlear (IV)
C. Trigeminal (V)
D. Abducens (VI)
Rationale: CN V mediates facial sensation and masticatory muscle motor function.
A patient must stop walking to answer questions, indicating difficulty with which motor skill?
A. Serial
B. Discrete
C. Dual-task
D. Continuous
Rationale: Dual-tasking combines cognitive and motor demands, causing interruption.
Deep full-thickness burns involve damage to:
A. Epidermis only
B. Dermis only
C. Hair follicles only
D. Subcutaneous tissue
Rationale: Full-thickness extends through dermis into subcutaneous layer.
During the proliferative stage of MCL healing, AVOID which exercise?
A. Lunges with weights
B. Lateral step-ups
C. Flutter kicks in water
D. Hip adduction with band at ankle
Rationale: Excessive adduction strains healing MCL.
Quadriceps setting exercises are an example of:
A. Dynamic
B. Isotonic
C. Isometric
D. Isokinetic
Rationale: Muscle contracts without changing length.
A 60% monofilament score suggests sensory loss; MOST beneficial intervention is:
A. Ankle-foot orthosis
B. Desensitization
C. Balance training
D. Skin integrity education
Rationale: Preventing wounds in insensate feet is priority.
A flexion-force spinal injury with motor and pain/temperature loss below lesion indicates:
A. Cauda equina
B. Anterior cord syndrome
C. Central cord syndrome
,ESTUDYR
D. Brown-Séquard syndrome
Rationale: Anterior cord spares dorsal columns but injures anterior tracts.
The photographed upper extremity test (resisted wrist extension with elbow extended) assesses:
A. Lateral epicondylalgia
B. Medial epicondylalgia
C. De Quervain syndrome
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Rationale: Tennis elbow is provoked by resisted wrist extension.
In CRPS after distal radius fracture, which is CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Active ROM
B. Compression garment
C. TENS
D. Joint immobilization
Rationale: Immobilization worsens CRPS—movement is therapeutic.
Excessive knee flexion in early stance of a transtibial prosthesis is corrected by:
A. Anterior socket shift
B. Firmer heel cushion
C. Higher shoe heel
D. Increased ankle plantarflexion
Rationale: More plantarflexion delays tibial advancement, reducing knee flexion moment.
Unilateral hip pain/stiffness relieved by rest, limited flexion—most likely:
A. Parkinson disease
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Multiple sclerosis
Rationale: OA causes mechanical pain, stiffness, and limited ROM improved by rest.
Parkinson disease is characterized by which tremor?
A. Cerebellar
B. Intention
C. Festinating
D. Resting
Rationale: PD produces a pill-rolling resting tremor at rest, less with action.
Which transfer skill involves moving from sitting to standing?
A. Sit-to-stand
B. Lateral transfer
C. Dependent transfer
D. Sliding board transfer
Rationale: Sit-to-stand is a common functional mobility task.
, ESTUDYR
During gait, the phase from heel contact to foot flat is:
A. Mid-stance
B. Terminal stance
C. Loading response
D. Pre-swing
Rationale: Loading response immediately follows heel strike.
Which muscle primarily initiates shoulder abduction?
A. Deltoid
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Supraspinatus
D. Infraspinatus
Rationale: Supraspinatus initiates first 15° of abduction before deltoid takes over.
Optimal ankle dorsiflexion ROM for gait is:
A. 0–5°
B. 0–10°
C. 0–20°
D. 0–30°
Rationale: Around 10° dorsiflexion is needed for normal tibial progression.
Which heart sound corresponds to mitral valve closure?
A. S2
B. S3
C. S1
D. S4
Rationale: S1 marks onset of systole by closure of mitral and tricuspid valves.
Normal capillary refill time is:
A. < 1 second
B. < 2 seconds
C. 3–4 seconds
D. > 5 seconds
Rationale: Delayed refill suggests peripheral vascular compromise.
For patients with COPD, the optimal trunk position to improve dyspnea is:
A. Supine
B. Leaning forward on arms (tripod position)
C. Side lying
D. Prone
Rationale: Tripod enhances accessory muscle use and lung expansion.
Which nerve root is tested by ankle dorsiflexion strength?
A. L2–L3
