Questions and CORRECT Answers
A responsive patient is choking. What method should the provider use first to clear the
obstructed airway? - CORRECT ANSWER - back blows
5 back blows given if responsive
Assessment of a patient in the emergency department reveals that the patient is experiencing
respiratory compromise. From the assessment, the team identifies that the patient is in the earliest
stage of this condition. Which stage would this be? - CORRECT ANSWER - respiratory
distress
respiratory compromise starts with distress and progresses to failure, then to arrest
patient reports chest discomfort, palpitations, and shortness of breath. ekg below. what is this
heart rhythm - CORRECT ANSWER - A. flutter
the flutter waves may be quite prominent, creating a "sawtooth" pattern.
A patient is brought into the emergency department. The patient does not have a pulse. The
cardiac monitor shows the following rhythm, which is interpreted as... - CORRECT
ANSWER - V. tach
the ventricular rate is usually greater than 180 beats per minute, and the QRS complexes are very
wide.
A patient with acute renal failure experiences cardiac arrest. Just before the cardiac arrest, the
patient's ECG showed peaked T waves. What might be causing the patient's cardiac arrest? -
CORRECT ANSWER - hyperkalemia
, hyperkalemia should be suspected in all patients with acute or chronic renal failure. EKG
findings of hyperkalemia=peaked t waves
A patient with dyspnea, inadequate blood pressure and a change in mental status arrives at the
emergency department. The healthcare team completes the necessary assessments and begins to
care for the patient, including initiating cardiac monitoring and pulse oximetry; providing
supplemental oxygen and ensuring adequate ventilation; and obtaining vascular access. The team
reviews the patient's ECG rhythm strip, as shown in the following figure. Which agent would the
team most likely administer?
A)Epinephrine 2-10 mcg/min
B)Atropine 1 mg every 3-5 minutes
C) Dopamine 5-10 mcg/min
D) Amiodarone 150 mg over 10 minutes - CORRECT ANSWER - B) Atropine 1 mg
every 3-5 minutes
Atropine is the first-line therapy for symptomatic bradycardia. A 1-mg bolus is given
intravenously every 3 to 5 minutes, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of fatigue,
shortness of breath, back pain and nausea. A 12-lead ECG is obtained and shows ST-segment
depression in leads II, III, and aVF and intermittent runs of nonsustained ventricular tachycardia.
Cardiac serum markers are elevated. These findings suggest which condition? - CORRECT
ANSWER - high risk NSTEMI ACS
In a STEMI-ST segment elevation at the J point in V2 and V3 and measuring 0.15-0.25 mV, or
elevation of 0.1 mV or higher in 2 or more contiguous leads other than V2 and V3 with a new or
presumed new LBBB; recipricol leads with ST depression
In high risk NSTEMI ACS-EKG changes suggesting ischemia; ST depression or T wave
inversion in 2 or more contiguous leads, transient ST elevation of 0.05 mV or higher lasting less
than 20 minutes