ABFM ITE 2025/2026 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

ABFM ITE 2025/2026 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory Findings Sodium 138 mEq/L (N 135-145) Potassium 3.9 mEq/L (N 3.5-5.5) Fastingglucose 86mg/dLBUN 14 mg/dL (N 10-20) Creatinine 0.6mg/dL(N0.6-1.3) Urinemicroalbumin negative According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the most appropriate medication to initiate at this time? A) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily B) Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg daily D) Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily E) Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg dailyANSWER: C This patient has hypertension and according to both JNC 8 and American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, antihypertensive treatment should be initiated. For the general non-African-American population, monotherapy with an ACE inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker, or a thiazide diuretic would be appropriate for initial management. It is also appropriate to initiate combination antihypertensive therapy as an initial management strategy, although patients should not take an ACE inhibitor and an angiotensin receptor blocker simultaneously. Studies have shown that blood pressure control is achieved faster with the initiation of combination therapy compared to monotherapy, without an increase in morbidity. Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide would be an appropriate choice in this patient. -Blockers, vasodilators, -blockers, and potassium-sparing diuretics are not recommended as initial choices for the treatment of hypertension. During rounds at the nursing home, you are informed that there are two residents on the unit with laboratory-confirmed influenza. According to CDC guidelines, who should receive chemoprophylaxis for influenza? A) Only symptomatic residents on the same unit B) Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility C) All asymptomatic residents on the same unitD) All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms E) All staff regardless of symptoms ANSWER: C In long-term care facilities, an influenza outbreak is defined as two laboratory-confirmed cases of influenza within 72 hours in patients on the same unit. The CDC recommends chemoprophylaxis for all asymptomatic residents of the affected unit. Any resident exhibiting symptoms of influenza should be treated for influenza and not given chemoprophylaxis dosing. Chemoprophylaxis is not recommended for residents of other units unless there are two laboratory-confirmed cases in those units. Facility staff of the affected unit can be considered for chemoprophylaxis if they have not been vaccinated or if they had a recent vaccination, but chemoprophylaxis is not recommended for all staff in the entire facility. A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of mild to moderate pelvic pain. She has had two male sex partners in the last 6 months and uses oral contraceptives and sometimes condoms. A physical examination reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and moderate cervical motion and uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a urinalysis are negative. Vaginal microscopy shows only WBCs. The initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease in this patient A) is appropriate at this timeB) requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-reactive protein level C) should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing D) should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography ANSWER: A Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a clinical diagnosis, and treatment should be administered at the time of diagnosis and not delayed until the results of the nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) for gonorrhea and Chlamydia are returned. The clinical diagnosis is based on an at-risk woman presenting with lower abdominal or pelvic pain, accompanied by cervical motion, uterine, or