1
VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
2025 – Actual Forms A, B & C with 2
Full Versions | Verified Answers for
Guaranteed Pass | Graded A
Form A (Version 1)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which action should the nurse
take to promote stoma health?
a) Apply petroleum jelly around the stoma.
b) Cleanse the stoma with alcohol-based wipes.
c) Ensure the skin barrier fits snugly around the stoma.
d) Change the pouch every 12 hours.
Correct Answer: c) Ensure the skin barrier fits snugly around the stoma.
Rationale: A properly fitted skin barrier prevents leakage and protects peristomal skin
from irritation, promoting stoma health. Petroleum jelly can interfere with adhesion,
alcohol-based wipes are irritating, and changing the pouch every 12 hours is too frequent
unless leakage occurs.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes reports nausea and vomiting. The blood glucose level is
450 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
b) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
c) Encourage oral fluid intake.
d) Check the client’s urine for ketones.
Correct Answer: b) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Rationale: A blood glucose of 450 mg/dL with nausea and vomiting suggests possible
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS), requiring
urgent medical intervention. Notifying the provider is the priority to initiate treatment.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement indicates the
need for further teaching?
a) “I will avoid eating large amounts of spinach.”
b) “I can take ibuprofen for my headaches.”
c) “I will report any bruising to my doctor.”
d) “I need to use a soft toothbrush.”
Correct Answer: b) “I can take ibuprofen for my headaches.”
Rationale: Ibuprofen increases bleeding risk when taken with warfarin. The client needs
further teaching to avoid NSAIDs and use acetaminophen instead.
, 2
4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which finding should the nurse
report immediately?
a) Weight loss of 2 lb in 24 hours.
b) Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L.
c) Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg.
d) Urine output of 1,000 mL in 8 hours.
Correct Answer: b) Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L.
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, and a potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is
low, increasing the risk of arrhythmias. This requires immediate reporting.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection. Which instruction
should be included in discharge teaching?
a) Limit fluid intake to reduce urgency.
b) Take antibiotics only when symptoms worsen.
c) Drink cranberry juice daily.
d) Avoid urinating frequently.
Correct Answer: c) Drink cranberry juice daily.
Rationale: Cranberry juice may help prevent recurrent UTIs by inhibiting bacterial
adhesion to the bladder. Clients should increase fluids, complete antibiotics, and urinate
frequently.
6. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at
2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates the need for intervention?
a) Oxygen saturation of 92%.
b) Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min.
c) Carbon dioxide level of 50 mmHg.
d) Clear lung sounds bilaterally.
Correct Answer: c) Carbon dioxide level of 50 mmHg.
Rationale: A CO2 level of 50 mmHg indicates hypercapnia, suggesting inadequate
ventilation in a COPD client, requiring intervention to adjust oxygen or assess for
respiratory distress.
7. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro to a client. When is the peak action
of this medication?
a) 15–30 minutes.
b) 1–2 hours.
c) 4–6 hours.
d) 6–8 hours.
Correct Answer: b) 1–2 hours.
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with a peak action of 1–2 hours,
requiring monitoring for hypoglycemia during this time.
8. A client with pneumonia reports chest pain with coughing. Which intervention
should the nurse implement?
a) Administer an antitussive as prescribed.
b) Encourage deep breathing every 4 hours.
c) Place the client in a supine position.
d) Restrict fluid intake.
Correct Answer: a) Administer an antitussive as prescribed.
, 3
Rationale: An antitussive reduces coughing, alleviating chest pain associated with
pneumonia. Deep breathing is important but may worsen pain without cough control.
9. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which finding should the
nurse report immediately?
a) Rebound tenderness in the right lower quadrant.
b) Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
c) Heart rate of 80 bpm.
d) Soft, formed stools.
Correct Answer: a) Rebound tenderness in the right lower quadrant.
Rationale: Rebound tenderness suggests peritoneal irritation, a critical sign of
appendicitis requiring urgent surgical evaluation.
10. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse
monitor?
a) International normalized ratio (INR).
b) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
c) Prothrombin time (PT).
d) Platelet count.
Correct Answer: b) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored by aPTT to ensure therapeutic
levels and prevent bleeding or clotting complications.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which dietary
recommendation should the nurse provide?
a) Increase sodium intake to maintain fluid balance.
b) Limit potassium-rich foods.
c) Reduce saturated fat intake.
d) Avoid whole grains.
Correct Answer: c) Reduce saturated fat intake.
Rationale: Reducing saturated fats helps lower cardiovascular risk in hypertension.
Sodium should be limited, and potassium-rich foods are beneficial.
12. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should
the nurse include?
a) Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
b) Maintain good oral hygiene.
c) Skip doses if feeling well.
d) Increase calcium intake.
Correct Answer: b) Maintain good oral hygiene.
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is essential to
prevent gum overgrowth.
13. A nurse is assessing a client with dehydration. Which finding should the nurse
expect?
a) Increased skin turgor.
b) Bradycardia.
c) Dry mucous membranes.
d) Decreased urine specific gravity.
Correct Answer: c) Dry mucous membranes.
, 4
Rationale: Dehydration causes dry mucous membranes due to fluid loss. Skin turgor is
decreased, heart rate is increased, and urine specific gravity is elevated.
14. A client with a fractured femur is in traction. Which nursing action is most
important?
a) Check pin sites for signs of infection.
b) Encourage high-protein snacks.
c) Reposition the client every 4 hours.
d) Adjust the traction weights as needed.
Correct Answer: a) Check pin sites for signs of infection.
Rationale: Pin site infections are a serious complication of skeletal traction, requiring
regular assessment to prevent osteomyelitis.
15. A nurse is teaching a client about digoxin therapy. Which finding indicates toxicity?
a) Heart rate of 80 bpm.
b) Nausea and yellow-green vision.
c) Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg.
d) Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L.
Correct Answer: b) Nausea and yellow-green vision.
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity is characterized by nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances
like yellow-green vision, requiring immediate reporting.
16. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) asks about dietary
modifications. Which food should the nurse recommend avoiding?
a) Lean chicken breast.
b) Chocolate.
c) Whole-grain bread.
d) Steamed broccoli.
Correct Answer: b) Chocolate.
Rationale: Chocolate relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter, worsening GERD
symptoms. Lean protein, whole grains, and non-acidic vegetables are generally safe.
17. A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which
action is most important?
a) Check blood glucose levels regularly.
b) Change the IV site every 24 hours.
c) Administer TPN through a peripheral line.
d) Warm the TPN solution before infusion.
Correct Answer: a) Check blood glucose levels regularly.
Rationale: TPN contains high glucose concentrations, requiring regular monitoring to
prevent hyperglycemia. TPN is given via a central line, and warming is not standard.
18. A client with a history of asthma reports increased wheezing. Which medication
should the nurse administer first?
a) Albuterol inhaler.
b) Prednisone tablets.
c) Montelukast.
d) Cromolyn sodium.
Correct Answer: a) Albuterol inhaler.
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, provides rapid bronchodilation for
acute asthma symptoms, making it the first-line treatment.
VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
2025 – Actual Forms A, B & C with 2
Full Versions | Verified Answers for
Guaranteed Pass | Graded A
Form A (Version 1)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which action should the nurse
take to promote stoma health?
a) Apply petroleum jelly around the stoma.
b) Cleanse the stoma with alcohol-based wipes.
c) Ensure the skin barrier fits snugly around the stoma.
d) Change the pouch every 12 hours.
Correct Answer: c) Ensure the skin barrier fits snugly around the stoma.
Rationale: A properly fitted skin barrier prevents leakage and protects peristomal skin
from irritation, promoting stoma health. Petroleum jelly can interfere with adhesion,
alcohol-based wipes are irritating, and changing the pouch every 12 hours is too frequent
unless leakage occurs.
2. A client with type 2 diabetes reports nausea and vomiting. The blood glucose level is
450 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
b) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
c) Encourage oral fluid intake.
d) Check the client’s urine for ketones.
Correct Answer: b) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Rationale: A blood glucose of 450 mg/dL with nausea and vomiting suggests possible
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS), requiring
urgent medical intervention. Notifying the provider is the priority to initiate treatment.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement indicates the
need for further teaching?
a) “I will avoid eating large amounts of spinach.”
b) “I can take ibuprofen for my headaches.”
c) “I will report any bruising to my doctor.”
d) “I need to use a soft toothbrush.”
Correct Answer: b) “I can take ibuprofen for my headaches.”
Rationale: Ibuprofen increases bleeding risk when taken with warfarin. The client needs
further teaching to avoid NSAIDs and use acetaminophen instead.
, 2
4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which finding should the nurse
report immediately?
a) Weight loss of 2 lb in 24 hours.
b) Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L.
c) Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg.
d) Urine output of 1,000 mL in 8 hours.
Correct Answer: b) Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L.
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, and a potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is
low, increasing the risk of arrhythmias. This requires immediate reporting.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection. Which instruction
should be included in discharge teaching?
a) Limit fluid intake to reduce urgency.
b) Take antibiotics only when symptoms worsen.
c) Drink cranberry juice daily.
d) Avoid urinating frequently.
Correct Answer: c) Drink cranberry juice daily.
Rationale: Cranberry juice may help prevent recurrent UTIs by inhibiting bacterial
adhesion to the bladder. Clients should increase fluids, complete antibiotics, and urinate
frequently.
6. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at
2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates the need for intervention?
a) Oxygen saturation of 92%.
b) Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min.
c) Carbon dioxide level of 50 mmHg.
d) Clear lung sounds bilaterally.
Correct Answer: c) Carbon dioxide level of 50 mmHg.
Rationale: A CO2 level of 50 mmHg indicates hypercapnia, suggesting inadequate
ventilation in a COPD client, requiring intervention to adjust oxygen or assess for
respiratory distress.
7. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro to a client. When is the peak action
of this medication?
a) 15–30 minutes.
b) 1–2 hours.
c) 4–6 hours.
d) 6–8 hours.
Correct Answer: b) 1–2 hours.
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with a peak action of 1–2 hours,
requiring monitoring for hypoglycemia during this time.
8. A client with pneumonia reports chest pain with coughing. Which intervention
should the nurse implement?
a) Administer an antitussive as prescribed.
b) Encourage deep breathing every 4 hours.
c) Place the client in a supine position.
d) Restrict fluid intake.
Correct Answer: a) Administer an antitussive as prescribed.
, 3
Rationale: An antitussive reduces coughing, alleviating chest pain associated with
pneumonia. Deep breathing is important but may worsen pain without cough control.
9. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which finding should the
nurse report immediately?
a) Rebound tenderness in the right lower quadrant.
b) Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
c) Heart rate of 80 bpm.
d) Soft, formed stools.
Correct Answer: a) Rebound tenderness in the right lower quadrant.
Rationale: Rebound tenderness suggests peritoneal irritation, a critical sign of
appendicitis requiring urgent surgical evaluation.
10. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse
monitor?
a) International normalized ratio (INR).
b) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
c) Prothrombin time (PT).
d) Platelet count.
Correct Answer: b) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored by aPTT to ensure therapeutic
levels and prevent bleeding or clotting complications.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which dietary
recommendation should the nurse provide?
a) Increase sodium intake to maintain fluid balance.
b) Limit potassium-rich foods.
c) Reduce saturated fat intake.
d) Avoid whole grains.
Correct Answer: c) Reduce saturated fat intake.
Rationale: Reducing saturated fats helps lower cardiovascular risk in hypertension.
Sodium should be limited, and potassium-rich foods are beneficial.
12. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should
the nurse include?
a) Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
b) Maintain good oral hygiene.
c) Skip doses if feeling well.
d) Increase calcium intake.
Correct Answer: b) Maintain good oral hygiene.
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is essential to
prevent gum overgrowth.
13. A nurse is assessing a client with dehydration. Which finding should the nurse
expect?
a) Increased skin turgor.
b) Bradycardia.
c) Dry mucous membranes.
d) Decreased urine specific gravity.
Correct Answer: c) Dry mucous membranes.
, 4
Rationale: Dehydration causes dry mucous membranes due to fluid loss. Skin turgor is
decreased, heart rate is increased, and urine specific gravity is elevated.
14. A client with a fractured femur is in traction. Which nursing action is most
important?
a) Check pin sites for signs of infection.
b) Encourage high-protein snacks.
c) Reposition the client every 4 hours.
d) Adjust the traction weights as needed.
Correct Answer: a) Check pin sites for signs of infection.
Rationale: Pin site infections are a serious complication of skeletal traction, requiring
regular assessment to prevent osteomyelitis.
15. A nurse is teaching a client about digoxin therapy. Which finding indicates toxicity?
a) Heart rate of 80 bpm.
b) Nausea and yellow-green vision.
c) Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg.
d) Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L.
Correct Answer: b) Nausea and yellow-green vision.
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity is characterized by nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances
like yellow-green vision, requiring immediate reporting.
16. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) asks about dietary
modifications. Which food should the nurse recommend avoiding?
a) Lean chicken breast.
b) Chocolate.
c) Whole-grain bread.
d) Steamed broccoli.
Correct Answer: b) Chocolate.
Rationale: Chocolate relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter, worsening GERD
symptoms. Lean protein, whole grains, and non-acidic vegetables are generally safe.
17. A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which
action is most important?
a) Check blood glucose levels regularly.
b) Change the IV site every 24 hours.
c) Administer TPN through a peripheral line.
d) Warm the TPN solution before infusion.
Correct Answer: a) Check blood glucose levels regularly.
Rationale: TPN contains high glucose concentrations, requiring regular monitoring to
prevent hyperglycemia. TPN is given via a central line, and warming is not standard.
18. A client with a history of asthma reports increased wheezing. Which medication
should the nurse administer first?
a) Albuterol inhaler.
b) Prednisone tablets.
c) Montelukast.
d) Cromolyn sodium.
Correct Answer: a) Albuterol inhaler.
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist, provides rapid bronchodilation for
acute asthma symptoms, making it the first-line treatment.
