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FAC1502 Mastery: 100 MCQs with Detailed Rationales

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“FAC1502 Mastery: 100 MCQs with Detailed Rationales” Description: Elevate your FAC1502 preparation with this comprehensive set of 100 multiple-choice questions, each accompanied by an in-depth rationale. Covering adult learning theories, instructional design models, assessment strategies, and facilitation techniques, this resource is designed to reinforce core concepts, sharpen critical thinking, and boost confidence ahead of your exam. Ideal for self-study, group review, or as a teaching aid. Hashtags: #FAC1502Prep #NursingEducation #MCQPractice #ActiveLearning #ExamSuccess

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Uploaded on
June 27, 2025
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Written in
2024/2025
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Below are 100 multiple-choice questions for FAC1502 (latest edition), each with the correct
answer and a detailed rationale.



1. Which of the following best describes the primary role of the facilitator in
facilitating learning?
A. Transmitting knowledge to learners
B. Creating an environment that supports active learning
C. Evaluating learner performance
D. Assigning grades
Answer: B
Rationale: The facilitator’s key role is to design and maintain a learning environment
that encourages learners to engage, explore, and construct their own understanding, rather
than merely transmitting information.
2. Adult learners are most motivated by
A. Extrinsic rewards like grades
B. Relevance of content to their goals
C. Lengthy lectures
D. Strict schedules
Answer: B
Rationale: According to andragogical principles, adults are self-directed and motivated
when content directly relates to their personal or professional objectives.
3. In Kolb’s experiential learning cycle, the stage following ‘Concrete Experience’ is
A. Active Experimentation
B. Reflective Observation
C. Abstract Conceptualization
D. Planning
Answer: B
Rationale: Kolb’s model: Concrete Experience → Reflective Observation → Abstract
Conceptualization → Active Experimentation.
4. A SMART learning objective is one that is
A. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Time-bound
B. Simple, Manageable, Applicable, Relevant, Tested
C. Structured, Monitored, Adaptable, Repeatable, Timely
D. Subjective, Memorable, Attainable, Resourceful, Tangible
Answer: A
Rationale: SMART stands for Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, and Time-
bound—criteria for clear objectives.
5. Which assessment method is most suitable for evaluating higher-order thinking
skills?
A. Multiple-choice questions
B. True/false questions
C. Essay questions
D. Matching items
Answer: C

, Rationale: Essays require learners to analyze, synthesize, and evaluate, tapping into
Bloom’s higher cognitive levels.
6. Constructive alignment refers to
A. Aligning teaching activities with administrative policies
B. Ensuring learning outcomes, teaching methods, and assessment tasks are in harmony
C. Aligning course grades with national standards
D. Aligning student expectations with course fees
Answer: B
Rationale: Constructive alignment (Biggs) means all components—outcomes, methods,
assessment—work together to support learning.
7. Which principle of adult learning emphasizes that adults bring life experiences to
the learning process?
A. Self-concept
B. Readiness to learn
C. Prior experience
D. Orientation to learning
Answer: C
Rationale: Adults’ accumulated experiences form a rich resource that facilitators should
connect to new content.
8. Formative assessment is characterized by
A. High-stakes grading
B. Feedback-driven improvement
C. End-of-course evaluation
D. Standardized testing
Answer: B
Rationale: Formative assessment provides ongoing feedback to help learners improve
during the instructional process.
9. Which learning theory focuses on reinforcement and punishment?
A. Behaviorism
B. Cognitivism
C. Constructivism
D. Humanism
Answer: A
Rationale: Behaviorism (Skinner, Pavlov) sees learning as a change in observable
behavior shaped by reinforcement contingencies.
10. A learning activity that requires students to teach a concept to peers is leveraging
A. Cooperative learning
B. Problem-based learning
C. Peer teaching
D. Directive instruction
Answer: C
Rationale: Peer teaching engages learners in explaining concepts, reinforcing their own
understanding and communication skills.
11. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a well-written learning outcome?
A. Describes observable behavior
B. Uses measurable verbs

, C. Specifies assessment methods
D. Contains ambiguous language
Answer: D
Rationale: Learning outcomes must be clear and unambiguous to guide teaching and
assessment.
12. Andragogy emphasizes that adult learners need to know
A. Why they need to learn something
B. Only the learning content
C. The instructor’s credentials
D. The textbook’s length
Answer: A
Rationale: Adults want to understand the purpose and benefits of learning tasks before
engaging.
13. When facilitating group discussions, the facilitator’s most important task is to
A. Speak frequently to guide discussion
B. Encourage equal participation
C. Critique learner comments
D. Keep strict timing
Answer: B
Rationale: Ensuring all voices are heard promotes inclusion and richer discussion.
14. The primary advantage of problem-based learning (PBL) is that it
A. Simplifies content delivery
B. Encourages rote memorization
C. Develops problem-solving skills in real contexts
D. Reduces facilitator workload
Answer: C
Rationale: PBL places learners in real-world scenarios, promoting critical thinking and
self-directed learning.
15. Which type of feedback focuses on how to improve performance rather than just
indicating correctness?
A. Summative feedback
B. Descriptive feedback
C. Norm-referenced feedback
D. Grade comments only
Answer: B
Rationale: Descriptive feedback gives specific guidance for enhancement, supporting
deeper learning.
16. The ‘zone of proximal development’ concept was introduced by
A. John Dewey
B. Lev Vygotsky
C. Jean Piaget
D. B.F. Skinner
Answer: B
Rationale: Vygotsky described the ZPD as the gap between what a learner can do
independently and with guidance.
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