,Ultimate Guide to Clinical Pathophysiology:
Full-Chapter Review with 880+ Questions
Contents
PART ONE: BASIC CONCEPTS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Unit 1: The Cell
1. Cellular Biology
2. Genes and Genetic Diseases
3. Epigenetics and Disease
4. Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
5. Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
Unit 2: Mechanisms of Self-Defense
6. Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
7. Adaptive Immunity
8. Alterations in Immunity NEW
9. Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
10. Stress and Disease
Unit 3: Cellular Proliferation: Cancer
11. Biology of Cancer
12. Cancer Epidemiology
13. Cancer in Children and Adolescents
PART TWO: BODY SYSTEMS AND DISEASES
Unit 4: The Neurologic System
14. Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
15. Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
16. Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
17. Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems and Neuromuscular Junction
18. Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
Unit 5: The Endocrine System
19. Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
20. Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
21. Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition NEW
Unit 6: The Hematologic System
22. Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
23. Alterations of Hematologic Function
24. Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
,Unit 7: The Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
25. Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
26. Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
27. Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
Unit 8: The Pulmonary System
28. Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
29. Alterations of Pulmonary Function
30. Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
Unit 9: The Renal and Urologic Systems
31. Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
32. Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
33. Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
Unit 10: The Reproductive Systems
34. Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
35. Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
36. Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
Unit 11: The Digestive System
37. Structure and Function of the Digestive System
38. Alterations of Digestive Function
39. Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
Unit 12: The Musculoskeletal and Integumentary Systems
40. Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
41. Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
42. Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
43. Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
44. Alterations of the Integument in Children
, Which of the following is a characteristic unique to
prokaryotic cells?
A. Membrane-bound nucleus
B. Linear chromosomes
C. Peptidoglycan cell wall
D. Mitochondria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prokaryotes possess a rigid cell wall composed of
peptidoglycan, whereas eukaryotes do not. Prokaryotes lack a
nucleus and mitochondria and typically have circular
chromosomes.
Section Reference: 1.1 Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
Eukaryotic cells differ from prokaryotic cells in that they
A. Lack histones
B. Contain membrane-bound organelles
C. Reproduce only by binary fission
D. Have a single circular chromosome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Eukaryotic cells possess membrane-bound
organelles (e.g., nucleus, ER, Golgi), unlike prokaryotes.
Histones are associated with eukaryotic DNA.
Section Reference: 1.1 Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
Which statement best describes cellular differentiation?
A. Conversion of ATP to ADP
,B. Specialization of cells for specific functions
C. Random mutation of DNA
D. Phagocytosis of debris
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Differentiation is the process by which a cell
becomes specialized in structure and function.
Section Reference: 1.2 Cellular Functions
The primary function of ribosomes is to
A. Synthesize lipids
B. Generate ATP
C. Translate mRNA into protein
D. Degrade misfolded proteins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ribosomes translate messenger RNA into
polypeptide chains, the first step in protein synthesis.
Section Reference: 1.2 Cellular Functions
Which process describes the engulfment of extracellular
particles by the cell?
A. Pinocytosis
B. Exocytosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Osmosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phagocytosis involves the ingestion of large particles
or cells; pinocytosis is fluid-phase uptake.
Section Reference: 1.2 Cellular Functions
, The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is most directly
involved in
A. Protein glycosylation
B. Lipid synthesis and detoxification
C. ATP production
D. Calcium-dependent apoptosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SER lacks ribosomes and functions primarily in lipid
synthesis and detoxification of drugs and toxins.
Section Reference: 1.3.2 Cytoplasmic Organelles
Which cytoskeletal component provides tensile strength and
cell-to-cell adhesion?
A. Microtubules
B. Actin filaments
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Myosin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intermediate filaments resist mechanical stress and
help maintain tissue integrity by linking cells.
Section Reference: 1.3.4 Cytoskeleton
Mitochondrial cristae increase
A. Surface area for ATP synthesis
B. DNA replication rate
C. Lipid storage capacity
D. Capability for phagocytosis
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: The infoldings of the inner mitochondrial membrane
(cristae) increase surface area, enhancing oxidative
phosphorylation.
Section Reference: 1.3.2 Cytoplasmic Organelles
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Golgi
apparatus?
A. Protein modification
B. Sorting of proteins for transport
C. Generation of ATP
D. Packaging of secretory vesicles
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Golgi modifies, sorts, and packages proteins;
ATP production occurs in mitochondria.
Section Reference: 1.3.2 Cytoplasmic Organelles
Clinical relevance: A defect in peroxisomal function would
most likely lead to
A. Accumulation of long-chain fatty acids
B. Increased glycolysis
C. Impaired DNA repair
D. Reduced protein translation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peroxisomes catabolize very-long-chain fatty acids;
dysfunction leads to their buildup (e.g., Zellweger syndrome).
Section Reference: 1.3.3 Vesicular Organelles
Cadherin molecules are essential for
A. Facilitated diffusion
,B. Tight junction formation
C. Calcium-dependent cell–cell adhesion
D. Signal transduction via G-proteins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cadherins require extracellular Ca²⁺ to mediate
homophilic binding between adjacent cell membranes.
Section Reference: 1.4.1 Cell Junctions
Tight junctions (zonula occludens) primarily function to
A. Anchor cells to the basement membrane
B. Prevent paracellular transport
C. Facilitate cell signaling
D. Exchange ions between cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tight junctions seal adjacent epithelial cells,
regulating the passage of substances through the intercellular
space.
Section Reference: 1.4.1 Cell Junctions
Which junctional complex allows cell–cell communication via
small molecules and ions?
A. Desmosomes
B. Gap junctions
C. Adherens junctions
D. Hemidesmosomes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gap junctions consist of connexons forming
channels that permit the passage of small molecules between
,cells.
Section Reference: 1.4.2 Specialized Cell Junctions
The receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) pathway is initiated by
A. Voltage changes in the membrane
B. Ligand binding that induces receptor dimerization and
autophosphorylation
C. GTP hydrolysis by G proteins
D. Direct opening of an ion channel
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RTKs dimerize upon ligand binding, leading to trans-
autophosphorylation and activation of downstream signaling.
Section Reference: 1.5 Cellular Communication and Signal
Transduction
cAMP acts as a second messenger by
A. Directly binding to DNA
B. Activating protein kinase A
C. Forming gap junctions
D. Inhibiting phospholipase C
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: cAMP binds the regulatory subunits of PKA,
releasing its active catalytic subunits to phosphorylate target
proteins.
Section Reference: 1.5 Cellular Communication and Signal
Transduction
Which phase of cellular metabolism yields the greatest
amount of ATP per glucose molecule?
, A. Glycolysis
B. Citric acid cycle
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
D. Hexose monophosphate shunt
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oxidative phosphorylation generates ~34 ATP via the
electron transport chain and chemiosmosis.
Section Reference: 1.6.2 Aerobic Metabolism
During anaerobic glycolysis, pyruvate is converted to lactate
in order to
A. Generate additional ATP via oxidative phosphorylation
B. Regenerate NAD⁺ for continued glycolysis
C. Increase the pH of the cytosol
D. Produce acetyl-CoA
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lactate dehydrogenase reduces pyruvate to lactate,
oxidizing NADH back to NAD⁺, essential for glycolysis to
continue under low oxygen.
Section Reference: 1.6.1 Anaerobic Metabolism
The hexose monophosphate shunt (pentose phosphate
pathway) is critical for producing
A. NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate
B. FADH₂
C. ATP directly
D. Pyruvate only
Correct Answer: A
Full-Chapter Review with 880+ Questions
Contents
PART ONE: BASIC CONCEPTS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Unit 1: The Cell
1. Cellular Biology
2. Genes and Genetic Diseases
3. Epigenetics and Disease
4. Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
5. Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
Unit 2: Mechanisms of Self-Defense
6. Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
7. Adaptive Immunity
8. Alterations in Immunity NEW
9. Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
10. Stress and Disease
Unit 3: Cellular Proliferation: Cancer
11. Biology of Cancer
12. Cancer Epidemiology
13. Cancer in Children and Adolescents
PART TWO: BODY SYSTEMS AND DISEASES
Unit 4: The Neurologic System
14. Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
15. Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
16. Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
17. Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems and Neuromuscular Junction
18. Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
Unit 5: The Endocrine System
19. Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
20. Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
21. Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition NEW
Unit 6: The Hematologic System
22. Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
23. Alterations of Hematologic Function
24. Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
,Unit 7: The Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
25. Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
26. Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
27. Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
Unit 8: The Pulmonary System
28. Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
29. Alterations of Pulmonary Function
30. Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
Unit 9: The Renal and Urologic Systems
31. Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
32. Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
33. Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
Unit 10: The Reproductive Systems
34. Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
35. Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
36. Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
Unit 11: The Digestive System
37. Structure and Function of the Digestive System
38. Alterations of Digestive Function
39. Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
Unit 12: The Musculoskeletal and Integumentary Systems
40. Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
41. Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
42. Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
43. Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
44. Alterations of the Integument in Children
, Which of the following is a characteristic unique to
prokaryotic cells?
A. Membrane-bound nucleus
B. Linear chromosomes
C. Peptidoglycan cell wall
D. Mitochondria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prokaryotes possess a rigid cell wall composed of
peptidoglycan, whereas eukaryotes do not. Prokaryotes lack a
nucleus and mitochondria and typically have circular
chromosomes.
Section Reference: 1.1 Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
Eukaryotic cells differ from prokaryotic cells in that they
A. Lack histones
B. Contain membrane-bound organelles
C. Reproduce only by binary fission
D. Have a single circular chromosome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Eukaryotic cells possess membrane-bound
organelles (e.g., nucleus, ER, Golgi), unlike prokaryotes.
Histones are associated with eukaryotic DNA.
Section Reference: 1.1 Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
Which statement best describes cellular differentiation?
A. Conversion of ATP to ADP
,B. Specialization of cells for specific functions
C. Random mutation of DNA
D. Phagocytosis of debris
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Differentiation is the process by which a cell
becomes specialized in structure and function.
Section Reference: 1.2 Cellular Functions
The primary function of ribosomes is to
A. Synthesize lipids
B. Generate ATP
C. Translate mRNA into protein
D. Degrade misfolded proteins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ribosomes translate messenger RNA into
polypeptide chains, the first step in protein synthesis.
Section Reference: 1.2 Cellular Functions
Which process describes the engulfment of extracellular
particles by the cell?
A. Pinocytosis
B. Exocytosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Osmosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phagocytosis involves the ingestion of large particles
or cells; pinocytosis is fluid-phase uptake.
Section Reference: 1.2 Cellular Functions
, The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is most directly
involved in
A. Protein glycosylation
B. Lipid synthesis and detoxification
C. ATP production
D. Calcium-dependent apoptosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SER lacks ribosomes and functions primarily in lipid
synthesis and detoxification of drugs and toxins.
Section Reference: 1.3.2 Cytoplasmic Organelles
Which cytoskeletal component provides tensile strength and
cell-to-cell adhesion?
A. Microtubules
B. Actin filaments
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Myosin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intermediate filaments resist mechanical stress and
help maintain tissue integrity by linking cells.
Section Reference: 1.3.4 Cytoskeleton
Mitochondrial cristae increase
A. Surface area for ATP synthesis
B. DNA replication rate
C. Lipid storage capacity
D. Capability for phagocytosis
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: The infoldings of the inner mitochondrial membrane
(cristae) increase surface area, enhancing oxidative
phosphorylation.
Section Reference: 1.3.2 Cytoplasmic Organelles
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Golgi
apparatus?
A. Protein modification
B. Sorting of proteins for transport
C. Generation of ATP
D. Packaging of secretory vesicles
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Golgi modifies, sorts, and packages proteins;
ATP production occurs in mitochondria.
Section Reference: 1.3.2 Cytoplasmic Organelles
Clinical relevance: A defect in peroxisomal function would
most likely lead to
A. Accumulation of long-chain fatty acids
B. Increased glycolysis
C. Impaired DNA repair
D. Reduced protein translation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peroxisomes catabolize very-long-chain fatty acids;
dysfunction leads to their buildup (e.g., Zellweger syndrome).
Section Reference: 1.3.3 Vesicular Organelles
Cadherin molecules are essential for
A. Facilitated diffusion
,B. Tight junction formation
C. Calcium-dependent cell–cell adhesion
D. Signal transduction via G-proteins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cadherins require extracellular Ca²⁺ to mediate
homophilic binding between adjacent cell membranes.
Section Reference: 1.4.1 Cell Junctions
Tight junctions (zonula occludens) primarily function to
A. Anchor cells to the basement membrane
B. Prevent paracellular transport
C. Facilitate cell signaling
D. Exchange ions between cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tight junctions seal adjacent epithelial cells,
regulating the passage of substances through the intercellular
space.
Section Reference: 1.4.1 Cell Junctions
Which junctional complex allows cell–cell communication via
small molecules and ions?
A. Desmosomes
B. Gap junctions
C. Adherens junctions
D. Hemidesmosomes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gap junctions consist of connexons forming
channels that permit the passage of small molecules between
,cells.
Section Reference: 1.4.2 Specialized Cell Junctions
The receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) pathway is initiated by
A. Voltage changes in the membrane
B. Ligand binding that induces receptor dimerization and
autophosphorylation
C. GTP hydrolysis by G proteins
D. Direct opening of an ion channel
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RTKs dimerize upon ligand binding, leading to trans-
autophosphorylation and activation of downstream signaling.
Section Reference: 1.5 Cellular Communication and Signal
Transduction
cAMP acts as a second messenger by
A. Directly binding to DNA
B. Activating protein kinase A
C. Forming gap junctions
D. Inhibiting phospholipase C
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: cAMP binds the regulatory subunits of PKA,
releasing its active catalytic subunits to phosphorylate target
proteins.
Section Reference: 1.5 Cellular Communication and Signal
Transduction
Which phase of cellular metabolism yields the greatest
amount of ATP per glucose molecule?
, A. Glycolysis
B. Citric acid cycle
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
D. Hexose monophosphate shunt
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oxidative phosphorylation generates ~34 ATP via the
electron transport chain and chemiosmosis.
Section Reference: 1.6.2 Aerobic Metabolism
During anaerobic glycolysis, pyruvate is converted to lactate
in order to
A. Generate additional ATP via oxidative phosphorylation
B. Regenerate NAD⁺ for continued glycolysis
C. Increase the pH of the cytosol
D. Produce acetyl-CoA
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lactate dehydrogenase reduces pyruvate to lactate,
oxidizing NADH back to NAD⁺, essential for glycolysis to
continue under low oxygen.
Section Reference: 1.6.1 Anaerobic Metabolism
The hexose monophosphate shunt (pentose phosphate
pathway) is critical for producing
A. NADPH and ribose-5-phosphate
B. FADH₂
C. ATP directly
D. Pyruvate only
Correct Answer: A
