TEST BANK FOR PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 5TH EDITION BY COPSTEAD AND BANASIK | COMPLETE ALL CHAPTERS 1-22 | 2023/2024

Which statement about the testes is TRUE? a. Each testis contains the ductus deferens. b. The testes are suspended by the spermatic cord. c. Each testis has its own scrotal sac and seminal vesicle. d. The testes must be kept at a temperature slightly above body temperature. ANS: B REF: 517 2. Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE? a. The complete process takes about 28 days. b. Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles. c. It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone. d. The process is initiated after each ejaculation. ANS: C REF: 518 3. Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism? a. Infertility b. Testicular cancer c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B ANS: C REF: 519 4. Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis? a. Varicocele b. Hypospadias c. Spermatocele d. Hydrocele ANS: D REF: 519 5. Which of the following are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis? a. A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic pain b. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria c. Hesitancy and increased urinary output d. Mild fever, vomiting, and leucopenia ANS: B REF: 520 6. Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy? a. The tumor usually becomes malignant in time. b. The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm. c. Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency. d. Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops. ANS: C REF: 521 7. Why does frequent need for urination occur with benign prostatic hypertrophy? a. Increased volume of dilute urine b. Irritation of the bladder and urethra c. Impaired micturition reflex d. Incomplete emptying of the bladder ANS: D REF: 521 8. Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer? a. Bone b. Lungs c. Liver d. Testes ANS: A REF: 522 9. What is a useful serum marker during treatment for prostatic cancer? a. Human chorionic gonadotropin b. Alpha-fetoprotein c. Prostate-specific antigen d. Luteinizing hormone ANS: C REF: 522 10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years? a. It is clear or whitish. b. It has a pH of 4 to 5. c. It does not contain any cells. d. It contains mucus. ANS: C REF: 524 11. Which of the following applies to the corpus luteum? a. It forms a mature ovarian follicle. b. It secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). c. It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the latter half of the menstrual cycle. d. It produces gonadotropins for the next cycle. ANS: C REF: 527 12. Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis? a. Obstruction in the fallopian tubes b. Inflammation due to blood irritating the endometrial tissue c. Hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions d. Fibrous tissue responding to hormonal changes ANS: B REF: 529 13. With pelvic inflammatory disease, why does infection spread easily into the peritoneal cavity? a. The fallopian tubes are obstructed, and purulent exudate cannot drain into the uterus. b. The uterus is perforated because of infection, allowing bacteria to leak out. c. Most of the primary infections do not respond to antimicrobial drugs. d. Microbes are highly virulent. ANS: A REF: 531 14. Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas? a. Development of malignancy b. Irregular menstrual cycles c. Interference with ovulation d. Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia ANS: D REF: 533 15. Which of the following refers to fibrocystic breast disease? a. Progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue b. Proliferation of atypical cells with high risk of malignancy c. Benign tumors that develop after menopause d. Any tissue changes other than the normal response to hormonal changes ANS: A REF: . Which of the following applies to carcinoma of the breast? a. It presents as a tender, painful, firm nodule. b. Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane. c. Occasionally, a genetic factor may have a small role in tumor development. d. The tumor is invasive but does not metastasize until very late. ANS: B REF: 535 17. Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer? a. The invasive stage b. The stage of mild dysplasia c. The time before it can be detected by a Pap test d. Noninvasive severe dysplasia ANS: D REF: 537 18. What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer? a. High estrogen levels b. Familial incidence c. Infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV) d. Early age for onset of menstrual cycles ANS: C REF: 538 19. What is a significant early sign of endometrial carcinoma? a. A positive Pap test b. Minor vaginal bleeding or spotting c. Infection resistant to treatment d. Painful intercourse ANS: B REF: 539 20. Which sexually transmitted infection(s) is/are usually considered asymptomatic in women? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Syphilis d. All of the above ANS: D REF: 541 21. Which of the following frequently causes pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and subsequent infertility? a. Chlamydia b. Genital warts c. Trichomoniasis d. Herpes simplex ANS: A REF: 531 22. Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina with a copious yellow discharge and foul odor? a. Candidiasis b. Trichomoniasis c. Syphilis d. Gonorrhea ANS: B REF: 545 23. What is the cause of syphilis? a. A gram-negative diplococcus b. An anaerobic protozoa c. A virus d. An anaerobic spirochete ANS: D REF: 542 24. Which of the following infections may be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during delivery? a. Gonorrhea b. Chlamydia c. Herpes simplex d. All of the above ANS: D REF: 542 | 544 25. Which of the following STDs is considered to be a systemic infection? a. Gonorrhea b. Chlamydia c. Syphilis d. Condylomata acuminate ANS: C REF: 542 26. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis? a. N. gonorrhoeae b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. S. aureus d. E. coli ANS: D REF: 520 27. The most common solid tumor found in young men is: a. prostatic cancer. b. testicular cancer. c. bladder cancer. d. penile cancer. ANS: B REF: 523 28. A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of: a. prostatic cancer. b. benign prostatic hypertrophy. c. acute prostatitis. d. chronic prostatitis. ANS: A REF: 522 29. How do testicular tumors usually present? a. Soft, tender mass b. Multiple firm nodules c. Hard, painless unilateral mass d. Small, fluid-filled cyst ANS: C REF: 523 30. Which term refers to bleeding between menstrual periods? a. Amenorrhea b. Dysmenorrhea c. Oligomenorrhea d. Metrorrhagia ANS: D REF: 529 31. Which statement does NOT apply to vaginal candidiasis? a. It is classified as an STD. b. The cause is an opportunistic yeast. c. It causes dysuria and dyspareunia. d. The mucosa becomes red and pruritic. ANS: A REF: 531 32. Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the: a. lungs. b. bone. c. pelvic lymph nodes. d. brain. ANS: C REF: 523 33. When the uterus is located in the vagina with the cervix at the opening to the vagina, this is called: a. first-degree prolapse. b. second-degree prolapse. c. third-degree prolapse. d. procidentia. ANS: B REF: 529 34. Painful menstruation is called: a. polymenorrhea. b. premenstrual syndrome. c. dysmenorrhea. d. endometriosis. ANS: C REF: 529 35. Vaginal candidiasis is frequently predisposed by: a. systemic antibacterial therapy. b. insertion of an intrauterine device. c. sexual intercourse with an infected partner. d. previous viral infection. ANS: A REF: 531 36. A chancre is best described as: a. a vesicle surrounded by a red inflamed area. b. a pustule filled with purulent exudate. c. an area of necrosis and fibrosis. d. a firm painless ulcerated nodule. ANS: D REF: 542 37. Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to: a. slow the growth of the primary tumor. b. destroy any micrometastases. c. prevent the removal of any lymph nodes. d. reduce the need for a mastectomy. ANS: B REF: 536 38. Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because: a. it does not respond to chemotherapy or radiation. b. vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis. c. premenopausal women are not likely to notice changes. d. hormone therapy is ineffective. ANS: B REF: . Specific genetic links have been shown for: 1. cervical cancer. 2. testicular cancer. 3. breast cancer. 4. prostatic cancer. a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 3, 4 ANS REF:522-523 | 535 40. In which cancers has there been a recent significant increase in incidence? a. Uterine cancer b. Breast cancer c. Ovarian cancer d. Cervical cancer in situ ANS: D REF: 546 41. Adenocarcinomas make up the most common cancers found in the: a. prostate. b. testes. c. ovary. d. cervix. ANS: A REF: 522 42. Infertility in women may result from: a. endometriosis. b. hormonal imbalances. c. A and B d. Neither A nor B ANS: C REF: 520 | 540 43. Viable sperm may not be able to access an ovum when: a. cervical mucus is highly viscous. b. vaginal pH is abnormal. c. structural abnormalities are present. d. A, B, and C ANS: D REF: 540 44. Balanitis is the infection and inflammation of the: a. vagina. b. glans penis. c. fallopian tubes. d. testes. ANS: B REF: 520 45. Structural abnormalities of the uterus may lead to dyspareunia, which is: a. painful intercourse. b. obstructed urination. c. a form of infertility. d. fungal infection of the uterus. ANS: A REF: 530 Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called? a. Adenoma b. Lipoma c. Fibrosarcoma d. Adenocarcinoma ANS: B REF: 550 2. What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called? a. Carcinomas b. Sarcomas c. Melanomas d. Fibromas ANS: B REF: 550 3. Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor? a. It is unencapsulated and invasive. b. It consists of undifferentiated cells. c. It exerts systemic effects. d. Cells appear relatively normal. ANS: D REF: 550 4. Which factor provides the basis for the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors? a. Size of the tumor b. Number of metastases c. Degree of differentiation of the cells d. Number of lymph nodes involved ANS: C REF: 551 5. A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT: a. persistent, unusual bleeding. b. a change in bowel habits. c. sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea. d. a change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion. ANS: C REF: 552 6. The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include: 1. obstruction of a tube or duct. 2. anemia and weight loss. 3. cell necrosis and ulceration. 4. tumor markers in the circulation. a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. 2, 4 d. 3, 4 ANS: B REF: 552 7. Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to? a. The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells b. Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer c. The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors d. The effects of multiple metastatic tumors ANS: A REF: 553 8. Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites? a. Invasiveness b. Seeding c. Metastasis d. Systemic effect ANS: C REF: 554 9. One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to: a. identify the original cell from which the tumor developed. b. locate and identify the primary tumor. c. decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor. d. determine the best treatment and prognosis. ANS: D REF: 556 10. The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with: a. exposure to promoters causing dysplasia. b. development of defective genes. c. an irreversible change in the cell DNA. d. a single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage. ANS: C REF: 557 11. What would be an external source of ionizing radiation? a. A needle containing a radioisotope implanted beside the tumor b. Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine c. A dose of a radioactive drug to be ingested d. A fluid containing radioactive material instilled in a body cavity ANS: B REF: 560 12. Radiation therapy destroys: a. all cells in the tumor at one time. b. the cells in the center of the tumor. c. primarily rapidly dividing cells. d. radioresistant cells. ANS: C REF: 560 13. The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are: a. thrombocytopenia and leucopenia. b. headache and lethargy. c. nausea and constipation. d. alopecia and weight loss. ANS: A REF: 567 14. Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to: 1. reduce the adverse effects. 2. guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed. 3. be effective in more phases of the cell cycle. 4. totally block the mitotic stage. a. 1, 3 b. 1, 4 c. 2, 3 d. 3, 4 ANS: A REF: 561 15. Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis? a. The ovaries are inaccessible for examination. b. Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed. c. The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer. d. No effective treatment is available. ANS: B REF: 565 16. Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker: a. colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) b. hepatic cancer: CA125, AFP c. prostate cancer: human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) d. testicular cancer: Philadelphia chromosome ANS: A REF: 553 17. Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by: a. promoting the immune response and removal of abnormal tumor cells. b. blocking hormonal stimulation of tumor cells. c. reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells. d. transporting radioisotopes into the tumor. ANS: C REF: 563 18. The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means: a. the cancer cells are being destroyed quickly. b. the patient is likely to hemorrhage. c. higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient. d. the patient is at high risk for infection. ANS: D REF: 562 19. Malignant brain tumors: a. metastasize quickly to all parts of the body. b. spread first to lungs and bone. c. spread to other parts of CNS. d. do not metastasize anywhere at any time. ANS: C REF: . Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy: a. Alopecia b. Bone marrow depression c. Nausea and vomiting d. Weight loss ANS: B REF: 562 21. Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because: a. glucocorticoids greatly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy. b. the immune system is stimulated. c. skeletal muscle atrophy will be decreased. d. inflammation around the tumor may be reduced. ANS: D REF: 563 22. Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because: a. the gastrointestinal tract is irritated. b. the chemicals stimulate the emetic center. c. the drugs have an unpleasant odor. d. A and B ANS: D REF: 562 23. What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments? a. Epithelial cells b. Skeletal muscle cells c. Nerve tissue d. Collagen and fibrous tissue ANS: A REF: 561 24. Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which: a. chemotherapy cannot be used. b. signs and symptoms are absent. c. complications are evident. d. metastases occur. ANS: B REF: 564 25. All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers EXCEPT: a. They are difficult to diagnose and treat. b. They usually develop slowly on the head, neck, or back of individuals with fair skin. c. The number of skin cancer cases is increasing. d. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common form of skin cancer. ANS: A REF: 564 26. High risk factors for cancer include: 1. human papilloma virus. 2. chronic irritation and inflammation. 3. repeated sun exposure. 4. high family incidence. a. 1, 3 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 ANS: D REF: 556 | 557 27. The term apoptosis refers to: a. programmed cell death. b. abnormal or immature cells. c. degree of differentiation of cells. d. the development of new capil