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ABFAS Exam Prep 2025 -100- Accurate, Fully Solved Questions- A+ Verified Answers for Guaranteed

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ABFAS Exam Prep 2025 -100- Accurate, Fully Solved Questions- A+ Verified Answers for Guaranteed

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Oxford Cambridge and RSA

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ABFAS Exam Prep 2025 | 100% Accurate, Fully Solved
Questions | A+ Verified Answers for Guaranteed
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INSTRUCTIONS
• Write your answer to each question in the space provided. If you need extra space
use the lined pages at the end of this booklet. The question numbers must be clearly
shown.
• Answer all the questions.
• Where appropriate, your answer should be supported with working. Marks might
be given for using a correct method, even if your answer is wrong.


ADVICE
• Read each question carefully before you start your answer.
© OCR 2025 [UTYYTEXAM] DC NSIGHTPAPERS)

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, A patient presents two weeks after removal of ring fixation complaining of sharp pain, over the anteromedial tibia
where a previous Schanz pin was removed, with walking. Radiographs show a stress riser and early periosteal changes.
What is the best course of action?

immobilization and nonweightbearing.

return to the operating room for application of an external fixator.

continue to monitor the area.

debride the nonviable bone and apply a dynamic compression plate. - ✔✔Rationale: Stress risers typically heal with
conservative therapy but immobilization and nonweightbearing is necessary to ensure adequate healing and prevent
progression of the stress fracture thus operative intervention is not always indicated. The other options are not the most
appropriate answer for this question based on the choices given.



A patient sustained a comminuted calcaneal fracture. Two months later, they complain of clawing of the lesser digits
and shoe-gear irritation. What is most likely cause of the deformity?

weakness of the anterior tibial tendon.

sural nerve injury.

unrecognized foot compartment syndrome.

medial plantar nerve injury. - ✔✔Compartment syndrome of the calcaneal compartment, involving the quadratus
plantae muscle, has been associated with clawing of the lesser digits because of its action on the flexor digitorum longus
tendon. None of the other answer choices have a pathoanatomical mechanism to cause clawing of the lesser digits.



A 25-year-old ballet dancer presents with an eight-month history of ankle pain after an ankle sprain. On physical
examination, there is joint swelling, and radiographs are unremarkable. Physical therapy and nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drugs have not decreased her symptoms. What is the next appropriate step in the management of this
patient?

magnetic resonance imaging of the ankle.

steroid injection to the ankle.

diagnostic ankle arthroscopy.

additional physical therapy. - ✔✔MRI



What is the most appropriate shoe modification for a patient who has undergone a well-aligned ankle arthrodesis?

extra-depth shoe with a Plastazote insert.

ankle-foot orthosis.

rocker sole shoe.

medial heel and sole wedge - ✔✔A rocker sole improves ambulation following ankle arthrodesis. Extra-depth shoe with
a Plastazote insert does not specifically address the needs of a patient with an ankle arthrodesis. AFO would typically not
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