AAAE ACE OPERATIONS Module 3 EXAM 2025/2026
COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS
<RECENT VERSION>
1. Ground vehicles on movement areas should be limited to what types of
operations? - ANSWER ✓ Airport self-inspections, maintenance and
emergencies
2. Do part 139 restrictions governing ground vehicle and pedestrian activity
apply to non-movement areas? - ANSWER ✓ No
3. The FAA suggests what four planning meetings to discuss specifics of
ground vehicular movements? - ANSWER ✓ Airside construction,
emergency response, snow and ice removal, low visibility
4. What are the two main categories of airspace in the U.S.? - ANSWER ✓
Regulatory and nonregulatory
5. What are the types of regulatory airspace? - ANSWER ✓ Classes A-E,
Restricted Areas, Prohibited Areas
6. What are the types of nonregulatory airspace? - ANSWER ✓ Military
Operating Areas, Warning Areas, Alert Areas and Controlled Firing Areas
7. Within the two categories of regulatory and nonregulatory airspace what
four types of airspace exist? - ANSWER ✓ Controlled, Uncontrolled,
Special use and Other
8. Class A airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ 18,000'MSL up to
FL600; IFR mandatory
,9. Class B airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ SFC - 10,000'MSL
around busy airports, individually tailored; ATC clearance and two-way
radio required
10.Class C airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ SFC - 4,000ft AGL
above an airport within 5NM of the airport and a shelf extending to 10NM
from the airport from 1,200ft to 4,000ft AGL; 2-way radio and transponder
Mode C required
11.Class D airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ SFC - 2,500ft AGL
above an airport with a control tower, tailored to encompass any instrument
approach procedures; 2-way radio required
12.Class E airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ All controlled
airspace that isn't already classified as A-D, normally 14,500 - 18,000' MSL.
Includes federal airways, 1,200ft AGL up to but not including 18,000ft MSL
13.Class G airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ Anything not
classified as controlled airspace A-E is uncontrolled G.
14.What is the airspace where flight activities must be confined because of their
nature or where limitations are imposed on aircraft operations that are not
part of those operations? - ANSWER ✓ Special-use airspace
15.What is the airspace extending outward from 3NM of the US coast that
contains activity that may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft? -
ANSWER ✓ Warning area
16.What are the three requirements for a navigational system to be considered
effective? - ANSWER ✓ integrity, accuracy and availability/reliability
17.What weather minimums are associated with a visual approach? - ANSWER
✓ 1,000ft and 3SM
18.When is a contact approach allowed? - ANSWER ✓ With at least 1 mile
visibility and the pilot uses visual references when they become available
,19.What are the decision height and visibility minimums for a Cat II ILS? -
ANSWER ✓ 100'DH, 1,200'RVR
20.What category and type instrument approach allows for an auto-land
capability assuming the aircraft is appropriately equipped and the pilot is
qualified? - ANSWER ✓ CAT IIIC ILS
21.Is runway visual range (RVR) equipment required for a CAT I ILS? -
ANSWER ✓ No, only required for CAT II and III ILS
22.Where are RVR(s) located on an airfield for a CAT I ILS? - ANSWER ✓
Either the runway midpoint or the aiming point
23.If the older two device RVR system is in use, what visibility range
increment is reported? - ANSWER ✓ visibility in 200ft increments; newer
single device RVRs report in 100ft increments
24.What is RVV? - ANSWER ✓ runway visibility value; either collected by
instrumentation or practical observation and reported in portions of a mile
25.What equipment uses a signal transmitted from the aircraft to a ground
station to determine distance from the station? - ANSWER ✓ distance
measuring equipment (DME)
26.What effective range is associated a terminal VOR? Low altitude VOR? -
ANSWER ✓ 25 NM; 40NM
27.What are the dimensions of the VOR protection zone? - ANSWER ✓ a
radius of 750 to 1,000ft around the VOR
28.What equipment uses a signal transmitted from the aircraft to a ground
station to determine distance from the station? - ANSWER ✓ distance
measuring equipment (DME)
29.What ground-based system augments satellite coverage to allow category I
GPS instrument approaches? - ANSWER ✓ Wide Area Augmentation
System (WAAS)
, 30.What is required to allow GPS approaches to be CAT II or III? - ANSWER
✓ A local ground-based transmitter known as a Local Area Augmentation
System
31.What is the radius of the critical area around most radars? - ANSWER ✓
1,000ft
32.What weather radar system helps detect and predict not only precipitation,
but also wind-shear and severe weather at an airport? - ANSWER ✓ Next-
Generation Radar (NEXRAD); when installed at the airport it is known as
Terminal Doppler Weather Radar (TDWR)
33.How far is the transmission from an ASOS or AWOS designed to reach? -
ANSWER ✓ 25NM and up to 10,000ft
34.What is considered the primary weather observing system in the U.S.? -
ANSWER ✓ Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS)
35.What is the differences between AWOS and ASOS - ANSWER ✓
Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) is older and less
sophisticated system; reports in 20 min intervals; funded by state or
municipal level.
ASOS more sophisticated; reports at hourly intervals and special
observations during changing weather conditions; federally funded
36.What are the basic components of an ASOS? - ANSWER ✓ sensors; data
collection/processing units; and peripherals/displays
37.What sensors are part of the ASOS suite? - ANSWER ✓ cloud height,
visibility, precipitation, freezing rain, pressure, temperature, dew point, wind
direction/speed, rain accumulation
38.The position in TRACON(Terminal Radar Approach Control) that processes
initial departure, route, and altitude info to a pilot is what? - ANSWER ✓
Clearance Delivery
COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS
<RECENT VERSION>
1. Ground vehicles on movement areas should be limited to what types of
operations? - ANSWER ✓ Airport self-inspections, maintenance and
emergencies
2. Do part 139 restrictions governing ground vehicle and pedestrian activity
apply to non-movement areas? - ANSWER ✓ No
3. The FAA suggests what four planning meetings to discuss specifics of
ground vehicular movements? - ANSWER ✓ Airside construction,
emergency response, snow and ice removal, low visibility
4. What are the two main categories of airspace in the U.S.? - ANSWER ✓
Regulatory and nonregulatory
5. What are the types of regulatory airspace? - ANSWER ✓ Classes A-E,
Restricted Areas, Prohibited Areas
6. What are the types of nonregulatory airspace? - ANSWER ✓ Military
Operating Areas, Warning Areas, Alert Areas and Controlled Firing Areas
7. Within the two categories of regulatory and nonregulatory airspace what
four types of airspace exist? - ANSWER ✓ Controlled, Uncontrolled,
Special use and Other
8. Class A airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ 18,000'MSL up to
FL600; IFR mandatory
,9. Class B airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ SFC - 10,000'MSL
around busy airports, individually tailored; ATC clearance and two-way
radio required
10.Class C airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ SFC - 4,000ft AGL
above an airport within 5NM of the airport and a shelf extending to 10NM
from the airport from 1,200ft to 4,000ft AGL; 2-way radio and transponder
Mode C required
11.Class D airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ SFC - 2,500ft AGL
above an airport with a control tower, tailored to encompass any instrument
approach procedures; 2-way radio required
12.Class E airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ All controlled
airspace that isn't already classified as A-D, normally 14,500 - 18,000' MSL.
Includes federal airways, 1,200ft AGL up to but not including 18,000ft MSL
13.Class G airspace consists of what area(s)? - ANSWER ✓ Anything not
classified as controlled airspace A-E is uncontrolled G.
14.What is the airspace where flight activities must be confined because of their
nature or where limitations are imposed on aircraft operations that are not
part of those operations? - ANSWER ✓ Special-use airspace
15.What is the airspace extending outward from 3NM of the US coast that
contains activity that may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft? -
ANSWER ✓ Warning area
16.What are the three requirements for a navigational system to be considered
effective? - ANSWER ✓ integrity, accuracy and availability/reliability
17.What weather minimums are associated with a visual approach? - ANSWER
✓ 1,000ft and 3SM
18.When is a contact approach allowed? - ANSWER ✓ With at least 1 mile
visibility and the pilot uses visual references when they become available
,19.What are the decision height and visibility minimums for a Cat II ILS? -
ANSWER ✓ 100'DH, 1,200'RVR
20.What category and type instrument approach allows for an auto-land
capability assuming the aircraft is appropriately equipped and the pilot is
qualified? - ANSWER ✓ CAT IIIC ILS
21.Is runway visual range (RVR) equipment required for a CAT I ILS? -
ANSWER ✓ No, only required for CAT II and III ILS
22.Where are RVR(s) located on an airfield for a CAT I ILS? - ANSWER ✓
Either the runway midpoint or the aiming point
23.If the older two device RVR system is in use, what visibility range
increment is reported? - ANSWER ✓ visibility in 200ft increments; newer
single device RVRs report in 100ft increments
24.What is RVV? - ANSWER ✓ runway visibility value; either collected by
instrumentation or practical observation and reported in portions of a mile
25.What equipment uses a signal transmitted from the aircraft to a ground
station to determine distance from the station? - ANSWER ✓ distance
measuring equipment (DME)
26.What effective range is associated a terminal VOR? Low altitude VOR? -
ANSWER ✓ 25 NM; 40NM
27.What are the dimensions of the VOR protection zone? - ANSWER ✓ a
radius of 750 to 1,000ft around the VOR
28.What equipment uses a signal transmitted from the aircraft to a ground
station to determine distance from the station? - ANSWER ✓ distance
measuring equipment (DME)
29.What ground-based system augments satellite coverage to allow category I
GPS instrument approaches? - ANSWER ✓ Wide Area Augmentation
System (WAAS)
, 30.What is required to allow GPS approaches to be CAT II or III? - ANSWER
✓ A local ground-based transmitter known as a Local Area Augmentation
System
31.What is the radius of the critical area around most radars? - ANSWER ✓
1,000ft
32.What weather radar system helps detect and predict not only precipitation,
but also wind-shear and severe weather at an airport? - ANSWER ✓ Next-
Generation Radar (NEXRAD); when installed at the airport it is known as
Terminal Doppler Weather Radar (TDWR)
33.How far is the transmission from an ASOS or AWOS designed to reach? -
ANSWER ✓ 25NM and up to 10,000ft
34.What is considered the primary weather observing system in the U.S.? -
ANSWER ✓ Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS)
35.What is the differences between AWOS and ASOS - ANSWER ✓
Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) is older and less
sophisticated system; reports in 20 min intervals; funded by state or
municipal level.
ASOS more sophisticated; reports at hourly intervals and special
observations during changing weather conditions; federally funded
36.What are the basic components of an ASOS? - ANSWER ✓ sensors; data
collection/processing units; and peripherals/displays
37.What sensors are part of the ASOS suite? - ANSWER ✓ cloud height,
visibility, precipitation, freezing rain, pressure, temperature, dew point, wind
direction/speed, rain accumulation
38.The position in TRACON(Terminal Radar Approach Control) that processes
initial departure, route, and altitude info to a pilot is what? - ANSWER ✓
Clearance Delivery
