EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT FINAL EXAM TEST BANK 2025
Trauma Assessment & Initial Management
1. A trauma patient with a GCS of 6 requires:
A. Immediate intubation
B. CT head
C. IV fluids
D. Cervical spine immobilization
Answer: A
Explanation: GCS ≤8 indicates severe brain injury and requires definitive airway
management to prevent hypoxia.
2. First priority in trauma management:
A. Breathing
B. Circulation
C. Airway
D. Disability
Answer: C
Explanation: Airway takes precedence in the ABCDE approach (ATLS protocol).
3. A patient with a tension pneumothorax presents with:
A. Muffled heart sounds
B. Tracheal deviation and absent breath sounds
C. JVD and hypotension
, D. Hyperresonance on percussion
Answer: B
Explanation: Tension pneumothorax causes tracheal deviation, absent breath sounds,
and respiratory distress.
4. Initial treatment for open pneumothorax:
A. Needle decompression
B. Occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides
C. Chest tube insertion
D. Intubation
Answer: B
Explanation: Prevents air trapping while allowing pressure release during exhalation.
5. Signs of cardiac tamponade (Beck’s triad):
A. Hypertension, bradycardia, JVD
B. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, JVD
C. Tachycardia, clear lungs, pulsus paradoxus
D. Bradycardia, hypertension, clear lungs
Answer: B
Explanation: Classic triad due to pericardial fluid restricting cardiac filling.
,Shock & Hemorrhage
6. A trauma patient with BP 70/40 after 2L crystalloid needs:
A. Additional crystalloid
B. O-negative blood
C. Vasopressors
D. CT scan
Answer: B
Explanation: Persistent hypotension indicates hemorrhagic shock requiring blood
transfusion.*
7. Neurogenic shock is characterized by:
A. Tachycardia and hypotension
B. Bradycardia and warm skin
C. Hypertension and JVD
D. Oliguria and metabolic acidosis
Answer: B
Explanation: Loss of sympathetic tone causes bradycardia and vasodilation.
8. Most reliable indicator of adequate resuscitation:
A. Blood pressure
B. Urine output (0.5 mL/kg/hr)
, C. Heart rate
D. Skin color
Answer: B
Explanation: Reflects end-organ perfusion.
9. Pelvic fracture with hypotension is managed first with:
A. Angioembolization
B. Pelvic binder
C. External fixation
D. Laparotomy
Answer: B
Explanation: Binder reduces hemorrhage by stabilizing fractures.
10. Class III hemorrhage involves blood loss of:
A. 15%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. >50%
Answer: B
Explanation: 30–40% blood loss causes marked hypotension and tachycardia.
Thoracic Trauma
11. Immediate action for flail chest: