CEA PREP: FULL PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE (2024/2025) GUARANTEED PASS

CEA PREP: FULL PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE (2024/2025) GUARANTEED PASS A 35-year-old woman presents with allergic rhinitis, experiencing significant nasal congestion, sneezing, and itchy eyes. She has tried over-the-counter antihistamines with limited relief. What is the most appropriate next step in management? - ANS Intranasal corticosteroids Which of the following best characterizes presbycusis in the older adult? - ANS Bilateral high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss Your 24-year-old male patient has been admitted post-motor vehicle collision at a high rate of speed. A CT head is performed revealing a pyramidal fracture involving the lateral walls of the maxillary sinuses and inferior orbital rim. Which classification of fracture is this? - ANS Le Fort II Rationale: Le Fort II fracture lines pass through the posterior alveolar ridge, lateral walls of maxillary sinuses, inferior orbital rim, and nasal bones Le Fort type I, the plane of injury is horizontal and typically results in a separation of the teeth from the upper face. The horizontal fracture line generally passes through the alveolar ridge which is the bony socket that holds the teeth, the lateral nose, and the inferior part of the maxillary sinus, one of the four nasal sinuses that resides near the nose. Le Fort type II presents with a pyramidal-shaped fracture. The upper teeth make up the base and the nasofrontal suture— a band of tissue connecting the frontal bone and the nasal bones—makes up the point or apex of the pyramidal fracture. The pyramidal plane of fracture can again occur through the alveolar ridge (an extension of the upper jaw) and maxillary sinuses, but typically also extends through the orbital rim (eye socket) and nasal bones. Le Fort type III, the plane of injury is transverse, or horizontal, similar to type I; however, in type III, injury typically begins at the nasofrontal area and extends across the orbital walls, zygomatic arch (cheek bone), and pterygoid plates. A type III Le Fort fracture is the most extensive as it can result in a complete dislocation of the midface from the base of the skull, known as a craniofacial dislocation. Which of the following is not a common symptom of Meniere's disease? - ANS Photophobia Rationale: The classic triad of Meniere's disease is vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. The medical term for nosebleed is which of the following? - ANS Epistaxis Rationale: Epistaxis is the medical term for nosebleed. A 73 y.o. M presents to the ED with complaints of large output hematemesis since early this morning. He is a endorses chronic alcohol use and his PMH is positive for peptic ulcer. Which of the following symptoms indicate a potentially severe GI bleed and likely need for immediate PRBC transfusion? - ANS Orthostatic dizziness, confusion, angina, severe palpitations, and cold/clammy extremities Rationale: Symptoms of severe blood loss include Orthostatic dizziness, confusion, angina, severe palpitations, and cold/clammy extremities. A 35-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of severe pain in his back, chest, and extremities. He has a history of sickle cell disease. What is the most appropriate initial management during a pain crisis? - ANS Hospitalization for intravenous fluids and opioids Rationale: Patients experiencing acute sickle cell crisis should be transported to the hospital for IV hydration therapy and pain management. A 14-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most important to continue monitoring growth, development, and: - ANS hemoglobin levels. Rationale: Chronic monitoring for patients with sickle cell disease includes monitoring of hemoglobin and hematocrit. A patient with a known intrinsic factor autoantibody is at risk for developing which of the following conditions? - ANS B12 deficiency and pernicious anemia Rationale: Causes of B12 deficiency include malabsorption and intrinsic factor deficiency. Intrinsic factor deficiency is a result of gastric resection or IF autoantibody. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the rehab unit you oversee for management of pain due to pelvic fracture after motor vehicle collision. Admission labs show ANC of 1.4. The patient is asymptomatic and denies history of repeated infection. What is the most appropriate level of intervention for his patient? - ANS Observation until patient becomes symptomatic Rationale: Treatment of neutropenia in asymptomatic patients is observation. Overactivation of coagulation and fibrinolysis resulting in thrombosis and hemorrhage is a trademark of which of the following? - ANS Disseminated intravascular coagulation Rationale: DIC is a systemic process that has potential to result in thrombosis and hemorrhage often due to overactivation of coagulation and fibrinolysis. A patient diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia requires iron supplementation. Which of the following treatments would likely be ineffective? - ANS Ferrous sulfate 325 mg PO BID for a 43 y.o. F s/p gastric bypass 2 years ago Rationale: Patients who have undergone bariatric surgery have a permanent loss and/or alteration of gastric space and subsequent decrease in the production of HCL and/or enterocytes. This loss decreases the conversion/absorption of ferric iron (present in food) into the usable ferrous form. Any PO administration of either ferrous or ferric iron is less likely to be absorbed in adequate amounts after gastric bypass or other gastric procedures. All the following thrombocytopenic emergencies require immediate action except: - ANS Scheduled surgical procedure with mild thrombocytopenia Rationale: Mild thrombocytopenia is not an emergency, but should involve evaluation by a hematologist or oncologist if no etiology is known prior to surgical stress. In which of the following patients is PRBC transfusion recommended? - ANS 73 y.o. M with acute GI bleed and Hgb 6.2 Rationale: PRBC is indicated to provide enough RBCs to maximize clinical outcomes while avoiding unnecessary transfusions. For most hemodynamically stable medical and surgical patients, transfusion is recommended/considered at a hemoglobin of 7 to 8 g/dL. A 78 y.o. M patient reports chronic infections, bruising, fatigue, SOB, and fevers. He has a history of rectal adenocarcinoma and completed concurrent chemotherapy/radiation earlier this year. His CBC shows Hgb 7.5, PLT 88, WBC 1.2, ANC 0.8, and peripheral smear shows dysplasia. What additional work-up would you anticipate for this patient? - ANS Bone marrow biopsy and flow cytometry Rationale: Diagnosis of MDS involves H&P, CBC, peripheral smear, bone marrow biopsy (immunocytochemistry and flow cytometry). Diagnosis is dependent on cytopenias, dysplasia, and cytogenic abnormalities. IPSS is used to identify risk. Patients with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis are more likely to have the presence of which tissue in greater quantities? - ANS Thymic tissue Rationale: Thymic tissue is routinely found in larger quantity on patients with MG and given this correlation, patients with MG routinely will undergo thymectomy. Which of the following treatments is not recommended for a patient with a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis? - ANS Oxycontin PRN for mild pain Rationale: Patients with RA may be controlled with any of the above regimens except use of opioids for a new diagnosis with a high abuse potential, as this does not safely balance the risk and benefit of treatment. Which of the following categories of medication are not likely to be included in the medication regimen for a patient with HIV? - ANS Protease antagonists