HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam TESTS WITH ANSWERS A+ GRADE.
A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that the
action of this drug is to
A. decrease the amount of the thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood
B. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood
C. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid
D. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland - D. PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control
hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid hormones. It is often prescribed in prep for
thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy
Which change in data indicates to the nurse the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor antagonist has
been achieved
A. Dependent edema reduced form +3 to +1
B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55mg/dl
C. PUlse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/min
D. Blood pressure reducedf rom 160/90 to 130.80 - D. angiotensin II receptor antagonist (blocker),
prescribed from treatment of HTN. The desired effect is a decrease in blood pressure.
Which instructions should the nurse give to a female client who just recieved a prescription for oral
metronidazole (flagyl) for treatment of trichomonas vaginalis (select all that apply)
A. increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice
B. Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use
C. Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension
D. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication
E. Use condoms until treatment is completed
F. Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time - ADEF
The nurse is transcribing a new prescription for spironolactone (aldactone) for a client who receives an
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. Which action should the nurse implement
A. verify both prescriptions with the HCP
,B. report the med interactions to the nurse manager
C. hold the ACE inhibitor and give the new prescription
D. Transcribe and send the prescription to the pharmacy - A. the concomitant use of an ACE inhibitor and
a potassium-sparing diuretic sucha s spironolactone, should be given with caution b/c the two drugs may
interact to cause an elevation in serum potassium levels.
A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults. The
nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client?
A. liothyronine (cytomel) to replace iodine
B. Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention
C. Pentobarbital sodium for sleep
D. nitroglycerin for angina pain - C. persons with myxedema are dangerously hypersensitive to narcotics,
barbiturates, and anesthetics. They do not tolerate liothyronine and usually receive iodine replacement
therapy. These clients are also suceptable to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerine
would be indicated and and congestive heart failure for which furosemide would be indicated
A client has a continuous IV infusion of dopamine and an IV of normal saline at 50ml/hour. The nurse
noes that the client's urinary output has been 20ml/hour for the last two hours. Which intervention should
the nurse initiate?
A. stop the infusion of dopamine
B. change the normal saline to a keep open rate
C. replace the urinary catheter
D. notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output. - D.
A healthcare provider prescrives cephalexin monhydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative
infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering
this prescription?
A. Penicillins
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Erythromycins
D.Sulfonamides - A. Cross-allergies exist between penicillins and cephalosporines, such as keflex. so
checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution
Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic?
, A. Antacids.
B. Benzodiasepines
C. Antihypertensives
D. Oral antidiabetics - B. respiratory depression increases with the concurrent use of opioid analgesics
and other cns depressant agents, such as alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiasepines
Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client recieving the angiotensin II
receptor antagonist irbesartan (avapro)?
A. Fluid volume deficit
B.Risk for infection
C. Risk for injury
D. Impaired sleep patterns - C. Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking
vasoconstrictor effects at various receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the
client at high risk for injury
A postoperative client has been recieving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine (demerol) 35mg/hr for
four days. The client has a PRN prescription for Demorol 100mg PO Q3H. The nurse notes that the client
has become increasingly restless, irritable and confused, stating that there are bugs all over the walls.
What action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine (demorol)
B. Administer naloxone (narcan) IV per PRN protocol
C. Decrease the IV infusion rate of the demerol per protocol
D. notify the healthcare provider of the clients confusion and hallucinations - C. The client is exhibiting
symptoms of demerol toxicity, which is consistent with the large dose of demerol recieved over four days.
C. is the most effective action to immediately decrease the amount of serum demerol.
The client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the next 24
hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
A. q6h
B. QID
C. AC and bedtime
D. PC and bedtime - A. q6h
A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that the
action of this drug is to
A. decrease the amount of the thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood
B. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood
C. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid
D. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland - D. PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control
hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid hormones. It is often prescribed in prep for
thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy
Which change in data indicates to the nurse the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor antagonist has
been achieved
A. Dependent edema reduced form +3 to +1
B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55mg/dl
C. PUlse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/min
D. Blood pressure reducedf rom 160/90 to 130.80 - D. angiotensin II receptor antagonist (blocker),
prescribed from treatment of HTN. The desired effect is a decrease in blood pressure.
Which instructions should the nurse give to a female client who just recieved a prescription for oral
metronidazole (flagyl) for treatment of trichomonas vaginalis (select all that apply)
A. increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice
B. Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use
C. Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension
D. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication
E. Use condoms until treatment is completed
F. Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time - ADEF
The nurse is transcribing a new prescription for spironolactone (aldactone) for a client who receives an
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. Which action should the nurse implement
A. verify both prescriptions with the HCP
,B. report the med interactions to the nurse manager
C. hold the ACE inhibitor and give the new prescription
D. Transcribe and send the prescription to the pharmacy - A. the concomitant use of an ACE inhibitor and
a potassium-sparing diuretic sucha s spironolactone, should be given with caution b/c the two drugs may
interact to cause an elevation in serum potassium levels.
A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults. The
nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client?
A. liothyronine (cytomel) to replace iodine
B. Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention
C. Pentobarbital sodium for sleep
D. nitroglycerin for angina pain - C. persons with myxedema are dangerously hypersensitive to narcotics,
barbiturates, and anesthetics. They do not tolerate liothyronine and usually receive iodine replacement
therapy. These clients are also suceptable to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerine
would be indicated and and congestive heart failure for which furosemide would be indicated
A client has a continuous IV infusion of dopamine and an IV of normal saline at 50ml/hour. The nurse
noes that the client's urinary output has been 20ml/hour for the last two hours. Which intervention should
the nurse initiate?
A. stop the infusion of dopamine
B. change the normal saline to a keep open rate
C. replace the urinary catheter
D. notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output. - D.
A healthcare provider prescrives cephalexin monhydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative
infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering
this prescription?
A. Penicillins
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Erythromycins
D.Sulfonamides - A. Cross-allergies exist between penicillins and cephalosporines, such as keflex. so
checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution
Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic?
, A. Antacids.
B. Benzodiasepines
C. Antihypertensives
D. Oral antidiabetics - B. respiratory depression increases with the concurrent use of opioid analgesics
and other cns depressant agents, such as alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiasepines
Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client recieving the angiotensin II
receptor antagonist irbesartan (avapro)?
A. Fluid volume deficit
B.Risk for infection
C. Risk for injury
D. Impaired sleep patterns - C. Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking
vasoconstrictor effects at various receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the
client at high risk for injury
A postoperative client has been recieving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine (demerol) 35mg/hr for
four days. The client has a PRN prescription for Demorol 100mg PO Q3H. The nurse notes that the client
has become increasingly restless, irritable and confused, stating that there are bugs all over the walls.
What action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine (demorol)
B. Administer naloxone (narcan) IV per PRN protocol
C. Decrease the IV infusion rate of the demerol per protocol
D. notify the healthcare provider of the clients confusion and hallucinations - C. The client is exhibiting
symptoms of demerol toxicity, which is consistent with the large dose of demerol recieved over four days.
C. is the most effective action to immediately decrease the amount of serum demerol.
The client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the next 24
hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
A. q6h
B. QID
C. AC and bedtime
D. PC and bedtime - A. q6h
