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NUR 437 Lab Quizzes | Verified Answers, Complete Solutions

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NUR 437 Lab Quizzes | Verified Answers, Complete Solutions What level of fall risk is Harry Chester? A) Medium Risk B) Low Risk C) High Risk Patient, Chris Frasier's recent echocardiogram found an ejection fraction of only 30-45%. True or False? True All of the following are diagnoses Arne Ardings has been treated for during his current admission except: A) Respiratory Failure B) Congestive Heart Failure C) Sepsis D) Pulmonary Edema Which age range dose Regina Fields fall under? A) 36-45 yrs B) 26-35 yrs C) 18-25 yrs D) 46-55 yrs Under order results, Kyle Miller has a lab result: ESR = 14 mm/hr. An ESR or Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate can be best described as: A) A lab that shows how bad an infection is. B) A lab that indirectly shows the degree of inflammation. C) A lab that indirectly shows renal function and creatinine clearance. D) A lab that monitors the red blood cell count. Kyle Miller was admitted to the hospital with the following diagnosis: A) Cellulitis B) Difficulty Breathing C) Congestive Heart Failure D) Non-healing Wound Which of the following lab results for Chris Frasier are indicative of his diagnosis of heart failure? A) Hematocrit = 40.2% B) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) - 540pg/mL C) Sodium (Na) = 138 mEq/L D) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) = 25 mg/dL Regina fields is on the standard Heparin Protocol. When first starting the heparin, she needs an 80 unit/kg bolus. How much heparin will she receive? A) 4360 units B) 9600 units C) 4.36 units D) 4360 mL It is okay to save doing a head-to-toe assessment on your patient until the end of the shift, since the most important information is received through verbal report. True or False? False After reviewing Harry Chester's lab results, you would classify his white blood cell count as: A) Decreased (below normal limits) B) Elevated (above normal limits) C) Within Normal Limits How frequently should a trasnparent occlusive dressing on a central venous catheter be changed? A) q3 days and PRN B) q24 hrs and PRN C) q48 hrs and PRN D) q5-7 days and PRN In communication with a new patient or client, the orientation phase occurs first. All of the following are goals in the orientation phase, except: A) To instill hope and ensure the patient will remain adherent to treatment B) Promoting the patient's problem-solving ability C) To establish trust D) To develop appropriate treatment goals (outcome criteria) and a plan of care The nurse has inserted a catheter 7.5cm (3 inches) in a female patient and obtains no urine return even though her bladder is distended. What action should the nurse take at this time? A) Remove the catheter and have another nurse attempt to catheterize the patient B) Leave the catheter in the vagina as a landmark and insert another sterile catheter C) Remove the catheter and reinsert into the urethra. The nurse may straighten the urethra by inserting one finger of the sterile gloved hand inside the vagina and applying gentle pressure upward. D) Inflate the balloon and reassess in 1 hour for urine return in the bedside drainage bag. 0.45% Sodium Chloride is considered a hypotonic solution. True or False? True Isabelle Capstone has the following admitting diagnosis: A) Seizures B) Bronchiolitis C) Dehydration D) Status Post Tracheostomy Placement During the course of your shift, Anastasiya's blood glucose level is measured at 250. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate? A) Check for ketones in her urine B) Administer an extra dose of Lantus C) Administer Glucagon 1mg IM D) Call the PICU to prepare for her to be transferred back The nurse is changing the dressing over a triple-lumen central venous access device and assesses the exit site. Which observation would be causes for concern and should be reported to the health care provider? A) Dried dark red blood noted on previous dressing B) Absence of exudate and swelling at insertion site C) Clamps are closed on each triple lumen D) Patient afebrile; redness and tenderness at exit site

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NUR 437 Lab Quizzes



What level of fall risk is Harry Chester?

A) Medium Risk
B) Low Risk
C) High Risk

Patient, Chris Frasier's recent echocardiogram found an ejection fraction of only 30-
45%.

True or False?
True

All of the following are diagnoses Arne Ardings has been treated for during his current
admission except:

A) Respiratory Failure
B) Congestive Heart Failure
C) Sepsis
D) Pulmonary Edema

Which age range dose Regina Fields fall under?

A) 36-45 yrs
B) 26-35 yrs
C) 18-25 yrs
D) 46-55 yrs

Under order results, Kyle Miller has a lab result: ESR = 14 mm/hr. An ESR or
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate can be best described as:

A) A lab that shows how bad an infection is.
B) A lab that indirectly shows the degree of inflammation.
C) A lab that indirectly shows renal function and creatinine clearance.
D) A lab that monitors the red blood cell count.

Kyle Miller was admitted to the hospital with the following diagnosis:

A) Cellulitis
B) Difficulty Breathing

, C) Congestive Heart Failure
D) Non-healing Wound

Which of the following lab results for Chris Frasier are indicative of his diagnosis of
heart failure?

A) Hematocrit = 40.2%
B) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) - 540pg/mL
C) Sodium (Na) = 138 mEq/L
D) Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) = 25 mg/dL

Regina fields is on the standard Heparin Protocol. When first starting the heparin, she
needs an 80 unit/kg bolus. How much heparin will she receive?

A) 4360 units
B) 9600 units
C) 4.36 units
D) 4360 mL

It is okay to save doing a head-to-toe assessment on your patient until the end of the
shift, since the most important information is received through verbal report.

True or False?
False

After reviewing Harry Chester's lab results, you would classify his white blood cell count
as:

A) Decreased (below normal limits)
B) Elevated (above normal limits)
C) Within Normal Limits

How frequently should a trasnparent occlusive dressing on a central venous catheter be
changed?

A) q3 days and PRN
B) q24 hrs and PRN
C) q48 hrs and PRN
D) q5-7 days and PRN

In communication with a new patient or client, the orientation phase occurs first. All of
the following are goals in the orientation phase, except:

A) To instill hope and ensure the patient will remain adherent to treatment
B) Promoting the patient's problem-solving ability

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