Pharmacology Practice Quiz 2025
Questions and Answers
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal
attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved?
A) Client states chest pain is relieved.
B) Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.
C) Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90.
D) Client's SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96%. - ANSWER✔✔-Client states chest pain is
relieved.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and
reduces chest pain (A). (B and D) would also occur if the angina was relieved, but are not as
significant as the client's subjective report of decreased pain. (C) may indicate a reduction in pain, or
a potentially serious side effect of the medication.
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,Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with a
prescription for warfarin Coumadin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the client
to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?
A) Perfusion scan.
B) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
C) Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
D) Serum Coumadin level (SCL). - ANSWER✔✔-Prothrombin Time (PT/INR)
Rationale: When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for warfarin therapy
is a PT 1½ to 2½ times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3 (B). A perfusion might be
performed to monitor lung function, but not monthly (A). APTT is monitored for the client
receiving heparin therapy (C). A blood level for Coumadin cannot be measured (D).
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate Keflex for a client with a postoperative
infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before
administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
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,D) Sulfonamides. - ANSWER✔✔-Penicillin
Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering
this drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial
infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - ANSWER✔✔-Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases
contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta adrenergic blocker that
decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases
myocardial oxygen consumption and preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitor that acts to prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and
afterload.
FOR STUDY PURPOSES ONLY COPYRIGHT © 2025 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 3
, Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - ANSWER✔✔-Every 12 hours
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to
severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain
management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as
needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4
to 6 hours (D) may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the
optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the next antibiotic
dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
FOR STUDY PURPOSES ONLY COPYRIGHT © 2025 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 4
Questions and Answers
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal
attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved?
A) Client states chest pain is relieved.
B) Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.
C) Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90.
D) Client's SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96%. - ANSWER✔✔-Client states chest pain is
relieved.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and
reduces chest pain (A). (B and D) would also occur if the angina was relieved, but are not as
significant as the client's subjective report of decreased pain. (C) may indicate a reduction in pain, or
a potentially serious side effect of the medication.
FOR STUDY PURPOSES ONLY COPYRIGHT © 2025 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 1
,Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with a
prescription for warfarin Coumadin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the client
to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?
A) Perfusion scan.
B) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
C) Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
D) Serum Coumadin level (SCL). - ANSWER✔✔-Prothrombin Time (PT/INR)
Rationale: When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for warfarin therapy
is a PT 1½ to 2½ times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3 (B). A perfusion might be
performed to monitor lung function, but not monthly (A). APTT is monitored for the client
receiving heparin therapy (C). A blood level for Coumadin cannot be measured (D).
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate Keflex for a client with a postoperative
infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before
administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
FOR STUDY PURPOSES ONLY COPYRIGHT © 2025 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 2
,D) Sulfonamides. - ANSWER✔✔-Penicillin
Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering
this drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial
infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - ANSWER✔✔-Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases
contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta adrenergic blocker that
decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases
myocardial oxygen consumption and preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitor that acts to prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and
afterload.
FOR STUDY PURPOSES ONLY COPYRIGHT © 2025 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 3
, Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - ANSWER✔✔-Every 12 hours
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to
severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain
management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as
needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4
to 6 hours (D) may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the
optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the next antibiotic
dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
FOR STUDY PURPOSES ONLY COPYRIGHT © 2025 ALL RIGHTS RESERVED 4
