Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than
females? -
correct answers - Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and
one Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? - correct answers - Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - correct
answers - Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and
preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic
studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that
provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed
between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of
genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed
during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT
is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one
chromosome with a missing gene? - correct answers - Cri du chat
syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This
term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome.
Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth- weight
baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - correct
answers - The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter
may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only
X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
GRADED
A+
,Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate
among the entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed
population? - correct answers - Relative risk is a ratio of probability,
not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?
- correct answers - Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect
multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most
thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - correct answers -
The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired
inflammation and wound healing? - correct answers - The underlying
chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes
the body's reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
- correct answers - Eosinophils are the body's primary defense
against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - correct answers - Macrophages work by
eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - correct answers -
Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of
immunogenicity when considering the antigen? - correct answers -
Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something
foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility? - correct answers - The complement
pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? -
correct answers
- An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - correct answers -
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g.,
tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and
athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
GRADED
A+
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
detect infection? - correct answers - Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4
to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may
take 23 to 90 days to result in
,a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false
negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high
likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - correct answers - Exotoxins are
released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - correct answers - The results of decreased fat
consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a
decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
years most likely to develop? - correct answers - Asbestos exposure
results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - correct
answers - UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell
carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs
that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These
thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? -
correct answers
- Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood
pressure control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health
outcomes.
true or false - correct answers - TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level,
improved health outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is
to incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from
childhood through university-level education in a manner consistent with
an individual's literacy level.
True or false - correct answers - True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is
crucial for understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - correct answers - Low
literacy often leads to perceived noncompliance to medical instructions,
including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all
instructions is critical for understanding.
GRADED
Amniocentesis
A+ is recommended for pregnant women with certain health
histories.
, Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation?
- correct answers - Those who have a family history of genetic
disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention
of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - correct answers - Regulation of
appetite-Research has shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations
in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects
approximately 1 in 600 black Americans an example of? - correct
answers - Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a population,
which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage
in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? -
correct answers - Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a
portion of chromosome
15. Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both
parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from
the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - correct
answers - Prevent infection of the injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to
remove damaged tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory
reactions when considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophil
s
Basophils
Eosinophils - correct answers - Neutrophils are one of the first
responders to acute inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils
demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural
exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? -
correct answers - Active- acquired immunity or naturally acquired active
immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live pathogen and
develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies? - correct answers - The greater
quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them genetically predisposed to
GRADED
develop
A+ allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to allergens;
therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to an
allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight the war.
females? -
correct answers - Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and
one Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause? - correct answers - Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - correct
answers - Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and
preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic
studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that
provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed
between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of
genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed
during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT
is performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one
chromosome with a missing gene? - correct answers - Cri du chat
syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This
term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome.
Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth- weight
baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - correct
answers - The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may
provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter
may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only
X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out.
GRADED
A+
,Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate
among the entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed
population? - correct answers - Relative risk is a ratio of probability,
not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?
- correct answers - Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect
multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most
thorough and accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - correct answers -
The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired
inflammation and wound healing? - correct answers - The underlying
chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes
the body's reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
- correct answers - Eosinophils are the body's primary defense
against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - correct answers - Macrophages work by
eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - correct answers -
Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of
immunogenicity when considering the antigen? - correct answers -
Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something
foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility? - correct answers - The complement
pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? -
correct answers
- An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - correct answers -
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g.,
tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and
athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
GRADED
A+
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
detect infection? - correct answers - Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4
to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may
take 23 to 90 days to result in
,a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false
negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high
likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - correct answers - Exotoxins are
released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer? - correct answers - The results of decreased fat
consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a
decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
years most likely to develop? - correct answers - Asbestos exposure
results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - correct
answers - UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell
carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs
that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These
thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? -
correct answers
- Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood
pressure control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health
outcomes.
true or false - correct answers - TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level,
improved health outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is
to incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from
childhood through university-level education in a manner consistent with
an individual's literacy level.
True or false - correct answers - True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is
crucial for understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - correct answers - Low
literacy often leads to perceived noncompliance to medical instructions,
including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all
instructions is critical for understanding.
GRADED
Amniocentesis
A+ is recommended for pregnant women with certain health
histories.
, Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation?
- correct answers - Those who have a family history of genetic
disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention
of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - correct answers - Regulation of
appetite-Research has shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations
in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects
approximately 1 in 600 black Americans an example of? - correct
answers - Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a population,
which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage
in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? -
correct answers - Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a
portion of chromosome
15. Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both
parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from
the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - correct
answers - Prevent infection of the injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to
remove damaged tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory
reactions when considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophil
s
Basophils
Eosinophils - correct answers - Neutrophils are one of the first
responders to acute inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils
demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural
exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? -
correct answers - Active- acquired immunity or naturally acquired active
immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live pathogen and
develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies? - correct answers - The greater
quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them genetically predisposed to
GRADED
develop
A+ allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to allergens;
therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to an
allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight the war.
