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AANP ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS / A GRADE / NEWEST UPDATE|2025/2026 VERSION|

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AANP ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS / A GRADE / NEWEST UPDATE|2025/2026 VERSION| A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination after a new patient visit. She has not seen a healthcare provider for several years. She is a smoker and her hypertension is now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In addition to starting Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes, the nurse practitioner should start the patient on: acid sequestrant. 2. a statin drug. 3. a cholesterol absorption inhibitor. 4. low-dose aspirin. - A statin drug The most commonly prescribed medication for mild systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is: 1. azathioprine (AZA). 2. belimumab (Benlysta). 3. ibuprofen (Advil). 4. cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). - ibuprofen (advil) The most common sign of cervical cancer is: 1. postcoital bleeding. 2. strong odor from vaginal discharge. 3. itching in the vaginal area. 4. molluscum contagiosum. - postcoital bleeding A 12-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most important to continue monitoring growth, development, and: 1. white blood cell levels. 2. fecal occult blood test. 3. hemoglobin levels. 4. urine dipsticks. - hemoglobin levels The nurse practitioner prescribes amitriptyline (Elavil) for a patient with neuropathic pain secondary to diabetes mellitus. On follow-up, the patient complains of urine retention and dry mouth. The practitioner would: 1. discontinue amitriptyline and begin ibuprofen (Motrin). 2. refer to physical therapy. 3. start methocarbamol (Robaxin). 4. discontinue amitriptyline and begin gabapentin (Neurontin). - discontinue amitriptyline and begin gabapentin (neurontin) A 17-year-old male with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with an NSAID and omeprazole (Prilosec). The patient complains of headache, abdominal pain, and gas. These symptoms are most likely: 1. associated with the omeprazole. 2. related to the underlying condition. 3. the result of the NSAID. 4. caused by viral gastroenteritis. - associated with the omeprazole The medication of choice for the initial treatment of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is: 1. acetaminophen. 2. prednisone. 3. aspirin. 4. ibuprofen. - ibuprofen

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AANP
Course
AANP

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AANP ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS / A
GRADE / NEWEST UPDATE|2025/2026 VERSION|



A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination after a new
patient visit. She has not seen a healthcare provider for several years. She
is a smoker and her hypertension is now adequately controlled with
medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lipid
profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In
addition to starting Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes, the nurse practitioner
should start the patient on:

1.bile acid sequestrant.
2. a statin drug.
3. a cholesterol absorption inhibitor.
4. low-dose aspirin. - A statin drug

The most commonly prescribed medication for mild systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE) is:

1. azathioprine (AZA).
2. belimumab (Benlysta).
3. ibuprofen (Advil).
4. cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). - ibuprofen (advil)

The most common sign of cervical cancer is:

1. postcoital bleeding.
2. strong odor from vaginal discharge.
3. itching in the vaginal area.
4. molluscum contagiosum. - postcoital bleeding

A 12-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell
crisis and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent
hospitalization. It is most important to continue monitoring growth,
development, and:

1. white blood cell levels.
2. fecal occult blood test.

,3. hemoglobin levels.
4. urine dipsticks. - hemoglobin levels

The nurse practitioner prescribes amitriptyline (Elavil) for a patient with
neuropathic pain secondary to diabetes mellitus. On follow-up, the patient
complains of urine retention and dry mouth. The practitioner would:

1. discontinue amitriptyline and begin ibuprofen (Motrin).
2. refer to physical therapy.
3. start methocarbamol (Robaxin).
4. discontinue amitriptyline and begin gabapentin (Neurontin). - discontinue
amitriptyline and begin gabapentin (neurontin)

A 17-year-old male with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with an NSAID
and omeprazole (Prilosec). The patient complains of headache, abdominal
pain, and gas. These symptoms are most likely:

1. associated with the omeprazole.
2. related to the underlying condition.
3. the result of the NSAID.
4. caused by viral gastroenteritis. - associated with the omeprazole

The medication of choice for the initial treatment of juvenile rheumatoid
arthritis is:

1. acetaminophen.
2. prednisone.
3. aspirin.
4. ibuprofen. - ibuprofen



T-wave inversion with a normal ST segment on a 12-lead EKG may
represent:

1. acute coronary ischemia.
2. right ventricular hypertrophy.
3. atrial hypertrophy.
4. hyperkalemia. - acute coronary ischemia

, The 16-year-old mother of a 2-month-old presents the infant, reporting that
the child is very irritable and does not feed well. During physical
examination, the child's head drops back and the child exhibits sudden
flexing of the extremities. As the flexing stops, the child cries uncontrollably.
Funduscopic examination reveals retinal hemorrhages. Which of the
following diagnostic tests should be ordered?

1. Skull X-rays
2. MRI
3. CT scan
4. Pet scan - CT scan

The most important diagnostic factor in evaluating angina pectoris is the
patient's:

1. King of Heart's monitor.
2. physical examination.
3. history.
4. echocardiogram. - history

There are three reasons for latex allergies. Which of the following does
NOT cause the problem?

1. Immediate hypersensitivity
2. Irritant contact of dermatitis
3. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
4. Immune complex reaction - cytotoxic hypersensitivity

A patient on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy for recurrent deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) is about to have lumbar spinal fusion surgery. The
patient's warfarin is put on hold starting 5 days prior to the surgery and
subcutaneous Lovenox has been ordered for DVT prophylaxis until the
resumption of the warfarin. The nurse practitioner knows that the patient's
postoperative warfarin dose should be restarted based on the:

1. value of her morning Prothrombin time.
2. loading dose of 10 mg, plus the previous warfarin dose.
3. baseline PT and INR values.
4. target INR of 2. - caseline PT and INR values

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Course
AANP

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Written in
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