ISSA- STRENGTH &CONDITIONING REAL Exam With Collect Answers

Q: What is the neural circuitry that travels outside the spinal cord? - ANSWERSPeripheral nervous system (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is a sensory receptor within a muscle that detects changes in length and helps regulate contraction? - ANSWERSMuscle spindle (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following are branches of the cell body that act as receivers, collecting information from other neurons? - ANSWERSDendrites (the correct answer) Q: A cascade of events, resulting in muscle contraction, is triggered when which of the following chemical neurotransmitters binds to receptors on the muscle? - ANSWERSAcetylcholine (the correct answer) Q: Which division of the peripheral nervous system controls voluntary movement? - ANSWERSSomatic nervous system (the correct answer) Q: Which type of motor unit can contract for many hours, or even days if necessary? - ANSWERSSlow (S) of Motor Unit (the correct answer) Q: Which type of motor unit has a large motor neuron and consists of a large bundle of type IIx muscle fibers? - ANSWERSFast fatigable (FF) (the correct answer) Q: Voluntary movement starts in the - ANSWERScerebral cortex. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is the process that allows a muscle spindle to contract at the same rate as the muscle where it resides? - ANSWERSAlpha-gamma co-activation (the correct answer) Q: How many nerves are contained within the peripheral nervous system, which includes all the neurons and glia outside of the brain and spinal cord? - ANSWERS43 pairs (the correct answer) Q: The muscular system includes how many muscles? - ANSWERSApproximately 650 (the correct answer) Q: Which muscle fiber type are the largest, and produce the most amount of force? - ANSWERSType IIx (the correct answer) Q: The cross-bridge cycle requires energy, which is provided by - ANSWERSATP hydrolysis. (the correct answer) Q: The function of epimysium is to - ANSWERSprotect muscle from friction against other muscles or bone. (the correct answer) Q: With regard to mitochondrial density, which muscle fiber type has a very small amount of mitochondria? - ANSWERSType IIx (the correct answer) Q: Regarding the make-up of a person's muscle fiber ratio, which of the following is correct? - ANSWERSIt can't be changed to a large degree (the correct answer) Q: It is currently theorized that training with heavy loads causes - ANSWERSequal growth of type I and type II fibers. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following functions like girdles and guy wires to provide an interconnected structure? - ANSWERSFascia (the correct answer) Q: Current research demonstrates what three possible mechanisms for inducing hypertrophy? - ANSWERSMechanical tension, metabolic stress, muscle damage (the correct answer) Q: The functional units that can make a muscle shorten are: - ANSWERSSarcomeres (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is found within the appendicular skeleton? - ANSWERSBones of the upper and lower extremities (the correct answer) Q: Movement between two adjacent vertebrae is made possible by - ANSWERSfacet joints. (the correct answer) Q: Wolff's Law describes the way - ANSWERSthe body responds by increasing or decreasing the bone's diameter (the correct answer) Q: In addition to being a barrier to pain, what important role does cartilage play? - ANSWERSBone development (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following are mature bone cells that maintain a bone's matrix? - ANSWERSOsteocytes (the correct answer) Q: Bone-on-bone contact that results in joint pain and stiffness from a loss of articular cartilage is - ANSWERSosteoarthritis. (the correct answer) Q: Elastin, an important elastic protein found in all connective tissues, allows those tissues to - ANSWERSregain their original shape after being stretched. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following terms refers to the main part or the shaft of a long bone? - ANSWERSDiaphysis (the correct answer) Q: The frontal plane is an imaginary plane that divides the body into which of the following segments? - ANSWERSAnterior and posterior (the correct answer) Q: The angle that a joint rotates around its axis is referred to as - ANSWERSthe direction of rotation (the correct answer) Q: What term describes the smallest blood vessels in the human body? - ANSWERSCapillaries (the correct answer) Q: What has been found to truly help create more muscular support when performing an intense exercise or lift? - ANSWERSBracing effect of a tight core (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is the largest lymphatic organ in the human body? - ANSWERSSpleen (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is one of the three main functions of the respiratory system? - ANSWERSRemoval of waste products of metabolism (the correct answer) Q: The normal amount of air displaced between inhalation and exhalation when no additional force is applied, is known as - ANSWERStidal volume. (the correct answer) Q: The major glands of the endocrine system include the - ANSWERShypothalamus. (the correct answer) Q: The amount of blood pumped through the heart per minute is known as which of the following? - ANSWERSCardiac output (the correct answer) Q: Peripheral resistance is defined as - ANSWERSthe amount of resistance to blood flow in the arteries. (the correct answer) Q: Plasma makes up about what percentage of blood volume? - ANSWERS55% (the correct answer) Q: The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body and moves it into the - ANSWERSright ventricle. (the correct answer) Q: The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy - ANSWERScannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another. (the correct answer) Q: In the short term, metabolic acidosis can - ANSWERSimpair muscle power and energy production. (the correct answer) Q: The process of making ATP from glucose, is called: - ANSWERSGlycolysis (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding cytoplasm and sarcoplasm? - ANSWERSSarcoplasm is where the actions of the phosphagen system and the reaction components take place. (the correct answer) Q: How long does it take to fully replenish stored phosphocreatine after maximum effort exercise? - ANSWERS15-25 minutes (the correct answer) Q: The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources is known as - ANSWERSGluconeogenesis. (the correct answer) Q: The lactate threshold corresponds with which of the following? - ANSWERSRapid drop in physical output and performance (the correct answer) Q: What action occurs within the mitochondria during the first 10 to 30 seconds of maximal activity? - ANSWERSThe mitochondria absorb protons (H+). (the correct answer) Q: Which enzyme breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids during lipolysis? - ANSWERSHormone-sensitive lipase (the correct answer) Q: During aerobic metabolism, which fuel type produces 106 ATP? - ANSWERSFatty acids (the correct answer) Q: Mechanics are divided into two categories: - ANSWERSdynamic and static. (the correct answer) Q: In which class of lever is the fulcrum (axis) located between the effort and the load? - ANSWERSFirst-class (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is a state of no acceleration, with the body at rest? - ANSWERSEquilibrium (the correct answer) Q: The point at which both body mass and weight are equally distributed is known as - ANSWERScenter of gravity. (the correct answer) Q: Force is a product of - ANSWERSmass times acceleration. (the correct answer) Q: With regard to stress from mechanical loading, the term shearing refers to - ANSWERScutting or breaking. (the correct answer) Q: The muscles responsible for protraction of the scapulothoracic (ST) joint include the - ANSWERSpectoralis major. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following correctly describes adduction? - ANSWERSMovement toward the midline (the correct answer) Q: The four primary wrist movements include - ANSWERSulnar deviation. (the correct answer) Q: The ankle is formed by three bones: the tibia, the fibula, and the - ANSWERStalus. (the correct answer) Q: When using skinfold calipers to assess body composition, how should the skin of the suprailiac region be pinched? - ANSWERSAt a 45-degree angle (the correct answer) Q: Instead of referring to posture as either good or bad, it is better to think of posture as - ANSWERSideal or not ideal. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following terms refers to a condition when muscles surrounding a joint are abnormally weakened or overactive, thus limiting a joint's movement? - ANSWERSMuscle imbalance (the correct answer) Q: When conducting the Rockport one-mile walk test, when should the participant's heart rate be measured? - ANSWERSAt the end of the test only (the correct answer) Q: Why is the three-minute step test used less frequently than the Rockport one-mile walk test and the Cooper 12-minute run test? - ANSWERSIt is less effective and has a lower percentage of participant completion (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding the lunge assessment? - ANSWERSThe coach will observe the lunge movement with little or no coaching. (the correct answer) Q: When conducting a standard squat assessment, the participant should be observed - ANSWERSanterior, posterior, and lateral positions. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding a gait assessment? - ANSWERSA gait assessment requires a coach to observe the client while walking. (the correct answer) Q: Which term refers to the reduction in the normal curvature of the spine? - ANSWERSFlat back (the correct answer) Q: A basic fitness assessment includes flexibility, posture, mobility, and - ANSWERSgeneral strength assessments. (the correct answer) Q: The ability to exert muscular force under a given condition is known as: - ANSWERSstrength (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is a benefit of using a 2-3 rep max assessment? - ANSWERSThe ideal training load can be determined faster with a 2-3 rep maximum assessment (the correct answer) Q: Generally speaking, which type of strength forms the foundation for all other types of strength? - ANSWERSMaximal strength (the correct answer) Q: The Borg CR10 scale is used to measure - ANSWERSan athlete's rate of perceived exertion (RPE). (the correct answer) Q: Before performing any 1RM attempt, at least how many warm-up sets, with progressively heavier loads are recommended? - ANSWERS3 (the correct answer) Q: The ability to express maximum force in minimum time is known as: - ANSWERSExplosive strength (the correct answer) Q: A depth jump can be used to measure which type of strength? - ANSWERSStrength-endurance. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following assessments is used to determine an athlete's reactive strength? - ANSWERSDepth jump (the correct answer) Q: When conducting the 30-meter shuttle run, what specifically is measured at the end point of the test? - ANSWERSMaximum speed (the correct answer) Q: A rapid whole-body movement with a change of direction or velocity in response to a stimulus is known as which of the following? - ANSWERSAgility (the correct answer) Q: Data and information based on facts, not opinions, is known as - ANSWERSobjective data. (the correct answer) Q: The term muscular strength refers to - ANSWERSthe exertion of force on physical objects. (the correct answer) Q: In the acronym SMART, used to identify the five requirements for an achievable goal, what does 'M' stand for? - ANSWERSMeasurable (the correct answer) Q: The three stages of the General Adaption Syndrome (GAS) are: - ANSWERSalarm, resistance, and exhaustion. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding program design principles? - ANSWERSThe Adaptation Principle states that adaptation is a result of improved physiological efficiency. (the correct answer) Q: The total maximum weight that an athlete can move for a single rep is known as: - ANSWERS1 RM. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is a combination of sets of two exercises targeting opposing muscle groups completed in succession with little to no rest between them? - ANSWERSSuper set (the correct answer) Q: What are the generally suggested rest periods, between sets, for hypertrophy training? - ANSWERS30-60 seconds (the correct answer) Q: The strategic implementation of specific training phases is known as - ANSWERSperiodization. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is an acute sign of overtraining? - ANSWERSIncreased resting heart rate (by 5 to 10 bpm) (the correct answer) Q: The full motion of a limb about a particular joint is referred to as - ANSWERSrange of motion. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding flexibility and stretching? - ANSWERSFlexibility is the outcome of stretching. (the correct answer) Q: A person's ability to accept a modest amount of discomfort while stretching is known as - ANSWERSstretch tolerance. (the correct answer) Q: A fibrous band of fascia created between tissues as a result of injury, muscle stress, or overuse is a(n) - ANSWERSadhesion Q: Regarding muscle and connective tissue, what type of tension is generated by external forces? - ANSWERSPassive tension (the correct answer) Q: A sudden stretch to the tendon of a muscle results in muscle contraction response known as the - ANSWERSmyotatic stretch reflex. (the correct answer) Q: With the application of heat, tendon and ligament elasticity can be increased by what percentage? - ANSWERSUp to 25% (the correct answer) Q: Research suggests the greatest appreciable changes in ROM occur with static stretching - ANSWERSbetween 15 and 30 seconds. (the correct answer) Q: An increase in flexibility affects the two types of ROM need for sport and functional movement: - ANSWERSactive and passive. (the correct answer) Q: What type of muscle contraction maintains constant tension in the muscle as the length changes? - ANSWERSIsotonic (the correct answer) Q: The SSC of muscle contraction driving plyometrics has three phases: a loading eccentric phase, a transitional amortization phase, and a(n) - ANSWERSunloading concentric phase. (the correct answer) Q: During which stage of the SSC are the muscle spindles stretched along with the noncontractile tissues within the muscle? - ANSWERSEccentric phase (the correct answer) Q: What detects changes in length of muscle fiber, and signal through afferent neurons to the spinal cord and the brain? - ANSWERSMuscle spindle (the correct answer) Q: Which statement is true regarding plyometrics? - ANSWERSWith a foundation of power, plyometrics can benefit athletes of any sport. (the correct answer) Q: Regarding recovery from plyometric training, what is the recommended duration of rest between training sessions? - ANSWERS48-72 hours (the correct answer) Q: Regarding the progression of plyometric exercises, which of the following is the logical progression from the squat jump? - ANSWERSBroad jump (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following statements regarding the progression of plyometric exercises is correct? - ANSWERSQuick changes of direction encourage neuromuscular overload. (the correct answer) Q: Within the SSC, the transition from absorbing force to generating force and acceleration is the - ANSWERSamortization phase. (the correct answer) Q: A slower eccentric phase will result in - ANSWERSless potential energy than a faster eccentric phase. (the correct answer) Q: A longer amortization phase will result in - ANSWERSthe loss of potential energy in the form of heat and reduced kinetic output in muscle contraction. (the correct answer) Q: The core is also known as the - ANSWERSlumbopelvic-hip-complex (LPHC). (the correct answer) Q: The musculature of the core is divided into - ANSWERSlocal and global stabilizers. (the correct answer) Q: Physical therapists and orthopedic specialists use three widely accepted tests of muscular endurance to test core endurance over strength: flexor endurance test, extensor endurance test, and the - ANSWERSside bridge. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following does research suggest, regarding the core? - ANSWERSMuscular endurance of the core is more important for core stability than strength (the correct answer) Q: The first step in core progression focuses on - ANSWERSmuscle recruitment. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following exercises is often used for stabilization and core stability? - ANSWERSBird dog (the correct answer) Q: When performing the standing landmine twist exercise, the athlete should - ANSWERSavoid lumbar rotation. (the correct answer) Q: Where should an athlete's elbows be placed when performing a plank exercise? - ANSWERSDirectly below the shoulders (the correct answer) Q: When performing a sit-up, the athlete should lie supine - ANSWERSwith knees bent at 90 degrees and arms crossed at the chest. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following core exercise is considered a multi-planar exercise? - ANSWERSModified side plank with hip external rotation (the correct answer) Q: There are various major dysfunctions of the hip a coach can observe, including - ANSWERSlateral weight shift. (the correct answer) Q: What is the largest and most complex joint in the body? - ANSWERSKnee (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is a muscle involved in controlling the knee? - ANSWERSPopliteus (the correct answer) Q: The three main bones in the ankle are the tibia, the fibula, and the - ANSWERStalus. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is a muscle involved in controlling the ankle? - ANSWERSGastrocnemius (the correct answer) Q: What are the primary movements of the knee? - ANSWERSFlexion and extension (the correct answer) Q: Movements in the frontal plane are actions requiring - ANSWERSlateral movement. (the correct answer) Q: What type of loading occurs when the load is held on the opposite side of the forward leg when performing a lunge? - ANSWERSContralateral (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding the hip hinge? - ANSWERSWhen performing the hip hinge, athletes should keep the shins as vertical as possible. (the correct answer) Q: Performing a squat with a single kettlebell held in a front racked position, is an example of what type of loading? - ANSWERSUnilateral loading (the correct answer) Q: The musculature of the upper body can be divided into three groups: - ANSWERSmuscles controlling the shoulders, muscles of the chest, and muscles of the back. (the correct answer) Q: The coordinated rotational movement of the scapula accompanying abduction, adduction, internal and external rotation, extension, and flexion of the humerus is known as scapulohumeral - ANSWERSrhythm. (the correct answer) Q: The muscles of the chest include the - ANSWERSsubclavius. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following can overactivity or tightness of the chest muscles result in? - ANSWERSAlterations to the subacromial space (the correct answer) Q: Muscles of the back are divided into three groups: intrinsic, intermediate, and - ANSWERSsuperficial. (the correct answer) Q: The spine is stabilized by two factors: the contraction of the supporting deep muscles surrounding the spine, and the - ANSWERSrotation and support from the lower LPHC. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following refers to an excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine? - ANSWERSKyphosis (the correct answer) Q: A painful condition occurring when the tendons and soft tissues around the shoulder joint become trapped between the humerus and the acromion is known as - ANSWERSshoulder impingement. (the correct answer) Q: What push-up variation allows for more elbow flexion for those with limited mobility of the wrist? - ANSWERSPush-up from dumbbells (the correct answer) Q: What angle of incline or decline has is typically used to maintain engagement of the chest during bench press modifications? - ANSWERSUp to 30 degrees (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following are considered the core Olympic lifts? - ANSWERSSnatch and the clean and jerk (the correct answer) Q: Power training, sometimes referred to as ballistic training, incorporates exercises producing maximum - ANSWERSforce in the shortest duration of time. (the correct answer) Q: A group of muscles firing together to create force is known as - ANSWERSintermuscular coordination. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following exercises involves the movement of lifting a barbell from the ground to the shoulders in one smooth movement? - ANSWERSClean (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding the clean and jerk exercise? - ANSWERSThe barbell remains close to the athlete's body throughout the movement. (the correct answer) Q: The Olympic style lifts are highly dependent upon - ANSWERSexplosive extension of the lifter's ankles, knees, and hips. (the correct answer) Q: What is often an index for static posture, and is also an important factor for power training? - ANSWERSCenter of pressure (the correct answer) Q: What is the path a weight follows during a movement? - ANSWERSTrajectory (the correct answer) Q: What is the goal of the lateral speed skater power-training exercise? - ANSWERSTo leap as far as possible in each direction (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding the wall ball power-training exercise? - ANSWERSFrom the half squat, the athlete explosively stands and extends the arms forward and overhead. (the correct answer) Q: Movement competency is the ability to move well, requiring a combination of - ANSWERSmobility and stability. (the correct answer) Q: It is widely accepted that a dynamic warm up start with - ANSWERSgeneral activity. (the correct answer) Q: The components of a fitness program that determine how it will be executed, are called - ANSWERStraining parameters. (the correct answer) Q: Exercises performed with the extremities in direct contact with the surface the athlete is training on are called - ANSWERSclosed kinetic chain exercises. (the correct answer) Q: Research surrounding post-activation potentiation suggests the effect after a heavy conditioning set is highest - ANSWERSbetween 15 seconds and 5 minutes after. (the correct answer) Q: The shortcoming of training with heavy loads is - ANSWERSthe strain on joints and the nervous system is used too frequently. (the correct answer) Q: A heavy load is typically defined as what percent of 1RM? - ANSWERS80% or higher (the correct answer) Q: When programming with moderate loads it is important to remember they - ANSWERSshould be light enough to be performed with a high velocity. (the correct answer) Q: The minimum required amount of training an athlete must perform to achieve their goal is called the - ANSWERSminimum effective dose. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following statements is correct? - ANSWERSTraining for maximal strength requires more rest between sets than does hypertrophy training. (the correct answer) Q: In linear periodization models, and inverse relationship exists between - ANSWERSvolume and intensity. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding linear and non-linear periodization (NLP)? - ANSWERSLinear periodization lacks the variability necessary to avoid stagnation. (the correct answer) Q: Which periodization model varies volume and intensity each workout or week? - ANSWERSUndulating periodization (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is used to counteract fatigue in order to achieve peak performance at the time of competition? - ANSWERSTapering (the correct answer) Q: The preparation phase consists of three components, including - ANSWERSgeneral physical preparation (GPP). (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following allows a coach to subjectively control an athlete's training intensity and provide a model for progressions? - ANSWERSUsing RPE for programming (the correct answer) Q: During which phase is a relatively high volume of work programmed to build general fitness? - ANSWERSGeneral preparation phase (GPP) (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding the SPP Phase? - ANSWERSExercises with greater sport specificity are programmed (the correct answer) Q: During the SSP phase sport-specific conditioning exercises are performed for what duration? - ANSWERS10 or 15 second bursts (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding competition phase programming? - ANSWERSThe primary goal is to maintain strength and conditioning qualities (the correct answer) Q: If glycolysis occurs at a high rate for an extended time, it can lead to - ANSWERSmetabolic acidosis. (the correct answer) Q: Anti-glycolytic training avoids metabolic fatigue to ensure the primary source of energy is - ANSWERSATP Q: The three energy systems are ATP-PC, anaerobic glycolysis, and - ANSWERSaerobic metabolism. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the muscle fiber types have high concentrations of capillaries, mitochondria, myoglobin, and oxidative enzymes, giving them superior endurance capabilities? - ANSWERSType I (the correct answer) Q: What is lactate threshold? - ANSWERSThe point when aerobic work is highest before lactate accumulates (the correct answer) Q: Interval training with moderate- and high-intensity activities are programmed to develop an athleteâ??s - ANSWERStype II muscle fibers. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is a benefit an athlete can gain when they develop their aerobic base? - ANSWERSIncreased heart rate variability (the correct answer) Q: The 180 Formula be used to estimate the maximum heartrate an athlete can achieve - ANSWERSwithout crossing their anaerobic threshold. (the correct answer) Q: During the maximum aerobic function (MAF) test, acyclic athletes who participate in sports requiring more endurance, should perform a cyclic activity - ANSWERSat their MAHR for 45 minutes. (the correct answer) Q: The 10 x 10 method is an endurance protocol designed to - ANSWERSoptimize high intensity dynamic exercises. (the correct answer) Q: What are the two types of stress adaptations that happen simultaneously, but at different rates, when the body reacts to stress? - ANSWERSShort-term and long-term (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is a manifestation of peripheral fatigue? - ANSWERSInability to maintain an expected level of force (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is a simple model of stress and response, illustrating the body's changing reaction to increased stress over time? - ANSWERSThe GAS Model (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following correctly states how many weekly training sessions are required for fitness maintenance to be achieved? - ANSWERSAs few as one or two high-intensity sessions (the correct answer) Q: The feeling of drowsiness or sluggishness that may follow a nap is known as - ANSWERSsleep inertia. (the correct answer) Q: A brief period of reduced training load prior to competition is known as - ANSWERStaper. (the correct answer) Q: With regard to heat recovery, which of the following is true? - ANSWERSWarmth can encourage relaxation. (the correct answer) Q: The natural cyclical circulation response to cold therapy techniques is known as - ANSWERSthe shell-core effect. (the correct answer) Q: Non-graduated compression garments - ANSWERSprovide less compression than graduated garments. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding dynamic compression, also known as intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC)? - ANSWERSIPC devices provides circumferential pressure, moving distal to proximal. (the correct answer) Q: What type of food classification mainly consists of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen molecules, and can be broken down for energy? - ANSWERSCarbohydrates (the correct answer) Q: In their simplest form, proteins exist as - ANSWERSamino acids. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding carbohydrates and the glycemic index (GI)? - ANSWERSThe GI assigns carbohydrate-rich foods a score of 0-100. (the correct answer) Q: The effect a food has on a person's blood sugar levels is known as the - ANSWERSglycemic response. (the correct answer) Q: How many calories (kcal) does fat contain, per gram? - ANSWERSnine (the correct answer) Q: Research suggests to maximize digestion, a post-workout shake should have a carbohydrate-to-protein of - ANSWERS2:1 (the correct answer) Q: The rate at which an endothermic animal expends energy while at rest is called - ANSWERSbasal metabolic rate (BMR). (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is true regarding weight loss and weight gain? - ANSWERSGain is anabolic, whereas loss is catabolic. + When energy output exceeds input, weight is lost. Q: Regarding cell water absorption, research suggests a single gram of glucose can create a higher level of intracellular water by bringing how many grams of water into the cell mass? - ANSWERSAnywhere from two to four (the correct answer) Q: The branched-chain amino acids are: isoleucine, leucine, and - ANSWERSvaline. (the correct answer) Q: Anything that provides a mental or physical edge when exercising or competing is called a(n) - ANSWERSergogenic aid. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following statements is true? - ANSWERSSupplement recommendation is outside a strength and conditioning coach's scope of practice. (the correct answer) Q: The three main types of whey protein are: whey concentrate, whey isolate, and whey - ANSWERShydrolysate. (the correct answer) Q: Which of the following is a rapidly digested carbohydrate? - ANSWERSMaltodextrin (the correct answer) Q: What is the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of fiber for males? - ANSWERS30-38 grams (the correct answer) Q: What two fatty acids are most abundant in fatty fish? - ANSWERSEicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) (the correct answer) Q: When combined with a resistance -exercise regimen, and compared to resistance exercise alone, creatine has been shown to increase strength by - ANSWERSfourteen percent. (the correct answer) Q: Which sports supplement is known for the tingle it leaves on the skin? - ANSWERSBeta alanine (the correct answer) Q: Branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs), commonly known as a supplement to support recovery and stimulate muscle growth, may also serve to - ANSWERSincrease endurance. (the correct answer)