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Exam (elaborations)

• ATI 2024 Pharmacology Test Bank – PN Students

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• ATI 2024 Pharmacology Test Bank – PN Students

Institution
Pharmacology
Course
Pharmacology










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Institution
Pharmacology
Course
Pharmacology

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Uploaded on
April 20, 2025
Number of pages
21
Written in
2024/2025
Type
Exam (elaborations)
Contains
Questions & answers

Subjects

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1. A client receiving amphotericin B develops chills and fever.
What should the nurse do?
A. Stop the infusion
B. Document findings
C. Pre-medicate with acetaminophen
D. Increase infusion rate
Answer: C
Rationale: Infusion reactions are common. Premedication with
acetaminophen or diphenhydramine is standard.

2. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.

3. A nurse is caring for a client on glipizide. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.

4. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness and

,confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation, confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.

5. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.

6. A client is prescribed exenatide. What is a common side
effect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Nausea
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Exenatide can cause nausea, especially when initiating
therapy. It’s an injectable incretin mimetic.

7. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”

, C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.

8. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.

9. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.

10. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C

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