1. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports mouth
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
2. A client with asthma uses albuterol PRN. Which statement
shows proper understanding?
A. “I use this every morning and night.”
B. “I use this when I’m having shortness of breath.”
C. “I use it with my steroid inhaler at the same time.”
D. “I use this even if I’m not having symptoms.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used during asthma attacks
or acute symptoms.
3. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
4. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction is
,appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
5. A client is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation. Which
side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold. Clients at risk (e.g.,
with eating disorders) need close monitoring.
6. A nurse is reviewing a client’s chart who is prescribed
gentamicin. Which finding should concern the nurse most?
A. Tinnitus
B. WBC 10,000
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Temperature 100.2°F
Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse effect
of gentamicin.
7. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
, C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
8. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
9. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
10. Which lab value should be monitored regularly for a client on
statins?
A. BUN
B. AST and ALT
C. Sodium
D. Hematocrit
Answer: B
sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
2. A client with asthma uses albuterol PRN. Which statement
shows proper understanding?
A. “I use this every morning and night.”
B. “I use this when I’m having shortness of breath.”
C. “I use it with my steroid inhaler at the same time.”
D. “I use this even if I’m not having symptoms.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used during asthma attacks
or acute symptoms.
3. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
4. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction is
,appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
5. A client is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation. Which
side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold. Clients at risk (e.g.,
with eating disorders) need close monitoring.
6. A nurse is reviewing a client’s chart who is prescribed
gentamicin. Which finding should concern the nurse most?
A. Tinnitus
B. WBC 10,000
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Temperature 100.2°F
Answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse effect
of gentamicin.
7. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
, C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
8. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
9. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
10. Which lab value should be monitored regularly for a client on
statins?
A. BUN
B. AST and ALT
C. Sodium
D. Hematocrit
Answer: B
