1. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had a true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
2. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
3. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
4. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums. What
,should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect. Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
5. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia is
most likely around 0930–1100.
6. A client with asthma uses albuterol PRN. Which statement
shows proper understanding?
A. “I use this every morning and night.”
B. “I use this when I’m having shortness of breath.”
C. “I use it with my steroid inhaler at the same time.”
D. “I use this even if I’m not having symptoms.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used during asthma attacks
or acute symptoms.
7. A nurse is teaching a client how to apply clotrimazole vaginal
cream. What instruction is correct?
A. Use during menstruation
B. Stop once symptoms go away
, C. Use applicator at bedtime
D. Use with a tampon
Answer: C
Rationale: For maximum effect, apply at bedtime using the
applicator. Avoid tampons during treatment.
8. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
9. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
is the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had a true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
2. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
3. A client is using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness.
What side effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Rash
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Scopolamine has anticholinergic effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, and urinary retention.
4. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums. What
,should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect. Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
5. A nurse gives regular insulin subcutaneously at 0700. At what
time should the nurse monitor for signs of hypoglycemia?
A. 0715
B. 0800
C. 0930
D. 1200
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin peaks in 2–4 hours. Hypoglycemia is
most likely around 0930–1100.
6. A client with asthma uses albuterol PRN. Which statement
shows proper understanding?
A. “I use this every morning and night.”
B. “I use this when I’m having shortness of breath.”
C. “I use it with my steroid inhaler at the same time.”
D. “I use this even if I’m not having symptoms.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a rescue inhaler used during asthma attacks
or acute symptoms.
7. A nurse is teaching a client how to apply clotrimazole vaginal
cream. What instruction is correct?
A. Use during menstruation
B. Stop once symptoms go away
, C. Use applicator at bedtime
D. Use with a tampon
Answer: C
Rationale: For maximum effect, apply at bedtime using the
applicator. Avoid tampons during treatment.
8. A client is started on lorazepam for anxiety. Which teaching
point is essential?
A. “Avoid grapefruit juice.”
B. “Take with NSAIDs.”
C. “Do not stop abruptly.”
D. “It may take weeks to work.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines must be tapered to prevent
withdrawal symptoms and seizures.
9. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
