1. A client is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation. Which
side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold. Clients at risk (e.g.,
with eating disorders) need close monitoring.
2. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir. What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
D. "Expect yellowing of the eyes."
Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity. Hydration is
essential to reduce the risk.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia. Always check HR
before administering.
4. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and muscle
,rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
5. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
6. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation, confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
7. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
, C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
8. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had a true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
9. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk. The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
10. A client with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine. Which
statement indicates effective therapy?
A. “I feel cold all the time.”
B. “My heart rate is slower than usual.”
C. “I have more energy now.”
D. “I’m gaining weight quickly.”
Answer: C
side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold. Clients at risk (e.g.,
with eating disorders) need close monitoring.
2. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir. What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
D. "Expect yellowing of the eyes."
Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity. Hydration is
essential to reduce the risk.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia. Always check HR
before administering.
4. A client taking haloperidol develops a high fever and muscle
,rigidity. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics.
Requires immediate intervention.
5. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
6. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation, confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
7. A post-op client is given ondansetron. Which is an expected
outcome?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Absence of nausea
, C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Sedation
Answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist used to prevent
or treat nausea and vomiting.
8. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had a true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
9. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 4.2. Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Administer the next dose of warfarin
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give vitamin K IV immediately
D. Prepare for platelet transfusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An INR >3.0 indicates increased bleeding risk. The
nurse should hold the medication and notify the provider.
10. A client with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine. Which
statement indicates effective therapy?
A. “I feel cold all the time.”
B. “My heart rate is slower than usual.”
C. “I have more energy now.”
D. “I’m gaining weight quickly.”
Answer: C
