1. A nurse is teaching a client about hydroxychloroquine for
lupus. What adverse effect should be reported immediately?
A. Dizziness
B. Blurred vision
C. Dry mouth
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Retinal damage is a serious side effect. Clients need
regular eye exams.
2. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
3. A nurse is caring for a client on glipizide. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.
4. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports mouth
,sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
5. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation, confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia. Always check HR
before administering.
7. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
, C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had a true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
8. A client receiving amphotericin B develops chills and fever.
What should the nurse do?
A. Stop the infusion
B. Document findings
C. Pre-medicate with acetaminophen
D. Increase infusion rate
Answer: C
Rationale: Infusion reactions are common. Premedication with
acetaminophen or diphenhydramine is standard.
9. What should the nurse include when teaching a client taking
ferrous sulfate?
A. Take with milk
B. Take with food if GI upset occurs
C. Expect pale stools
D. Avoid vitamin C
Answer: B
Rationale: Iron can upset the stomach. If so, take with food (but
not dairy). Vitamin C increases absorption.
10. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
lupus. What adverse effect should be reported immediately?
A. Dizziness
B. Blurred vision
C. Dry mouth
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Retinal damage is a serious side effect. Clients need
regular eye exams.
2. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
3. A nurse is caring for a client on glipizide. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.
4. A client receiving methotrexate for cancer reports mouth
,sores. What is the nurse's best response?
A. “This is a normal side effect.”
B. “Increase intake of spicy food.”
C. “Use a soft toothbrush and rinse with saline.”
D. “Chew gum frequently.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Mouth sores (stomatitis) are common. Gentle oral care
is essential to prevent infection and discomfort.
5. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation, confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
6. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol. Which
assessment is priority?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol can cause bradycardia. Always check HR
before administering.
7. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed cephalexin. What
is the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer as ordered
B. Ask about previous reaction type
, C. Hold the dose for 30 minutes
D. Give with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Cross-sensitivity may occur. Ask if the client had a true
anaphylactic reaction before administering.
8. A client receiving amphotericin B develops chills and fever.
What should the nurse do?
A. Stop the infusion
B. Document findings
C. Pre-medicate with acetaminophen
D. Increase infusion rate
Answer: C
Rationale: Infusion reactions are common. Premedication with
acetaminophen or diphenhydramine is standard.
9. What should the nurse include when teaching a client taking
ferrous sulfate?
A. Take with milk
B. Take with food if GI upset occurs
C. Expect pale stools
D. Avoid vitamin C
Answer: B
Rationale: Iron can upset the stomach. If so, take with food (but
not dairy). Vitamin C increases absorption.
10. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
