1. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client. Which finding
requires immediate action?
A. HR 62 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. BP 140/88 mmHg
D. Urine output 400 mL in 8 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances and halos are signs of digoxin
toxicity, especially when paired with bradycardia.
2. A client with chronic constipation uses magnesium citrate
daily. What risk should the nurse discuss?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Dehydration
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic laxative use, especially osmotic types like
magnesium citrate, causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
3. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
4. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is most
,likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
5. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
6. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
7. A client takes aluminum hydroxide for GERD. What adverse
effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
, C. Hypokalemia
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Aluminum-based antacids commonly cause
constipation.
8. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
9. What should the nurse include when teaching a client taking
ferrous sulfate?
A. Take with milk
B. Take with food if GI upset occurs
C. Expect pale stools
D. Avoid vitamin C
Answer: B
Rationale: Iron can upset the stomach. If so, take with food (but
not dairy). Vitamin C increases absorption.
10. A client receiving amphotericin B develops chills and fever.
What should the nurse do?
A. Stop the infusion
B. Document findings
C. Pre-medicate with acetaminophen
D. Increase infusion rate
Answer: C
requires immediate action?
A. HR 62 bpm
B. Blurred vision with yellow halos
C. BP 140/88 mmHg
D. Urine output 400 mL in 8 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances and halos are signs of digoxin
toxicity, especially when paired with bradycardia.
2. A client with chronic constipation uses magnesium citrate
daily. What risk should the nurse discuss?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Dehydration
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic laxative use, especially osmotic types like
magnesium citrate, causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
3. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
4. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is most
,likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
5. What lab value should be monitored in a client receiving
propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. Glucose
B. TSH and T3/T4
C. Calcium
D. Sodium
Answer: B
Rationale: PTU suppresses thyroid hormone. Monitor TSH, T3, and
T4 to assess effectiveness.
6. A nurse teaches a client taking cyclobenzaprine. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. “I will take this long-term.”
B. “I can drink alcohol in moderation.”
C. “I should avoid driving until I know how it affects me.”
D. “It will help my heart condition.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclobenzaprine causes drowsiness. Clients should
avoid driving or alcohol initially.
7. A client takes aluminum hydroxide for GERD. What adverse
effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
, C. Hypokalemia
D. Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Aluminum-based antacids commonly cause
constipation.
8. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which lab
result should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
D. BUN 18 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia. A
potassium level of 5.8 is elevated and should be reported.
9. What should the nurse include when teaching a client taking
ferrous sulfate?
A. Take with milk
B. Take with food if GI upset occurs
C. Expect pale stools
D. Avoid vitamin C
Answer: B
Rationale: Iron can upset the stomach. If so, take with food (but
not dairy). Vitamin C increases absorption.
10. A client receiving amphotericin B develops chills and fever.
What should the nurse do?
A. Stop the infusion
B. Document findings
C. Pre-medicate with acetaminophen
D. Increase infusion rate
Answer: C
