1. A client prescribed clopidogrel should avoid which over-the
counter medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Famotidine
D. Guaifenesin
Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk when
combined with antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel.
2. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
3. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity. Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
4. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis develops
,numbness and tingling in their hands and feet. What should the
nurse anticipate?
A. The need for increased calcium
B. Administration of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Discontinuation of therapy
D. Addition of prednisone
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, often
prevented or treated with vitamin B6.
5. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction is
appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
6. A nurse is caring for a client on glipizide. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.
7. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir. What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
, B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
D. "Expect yellowing of the eyes."
Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity. Hydration is
essential to reduce the risk.
8. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
9. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums. What
should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect. Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
10. A client is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation. Which
side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
counter medication?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Famotidine
D. Guaifenesin
Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase bleeding risk when
combined with antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel.
2. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
3. A client taking carbidopa/levodopa reports facial twitching
and eye spasms. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client this is expected
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer diphenhydramine
D. Document and continue monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: Facial twitching and spasms are signs of toxicity. Notify
the provider to adjust dosage.
4. A client taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis develops
,numbness and tingling in their hands and feet. What should the
nurse anticipate?
A. The need for increased calcium
B. Administration of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
C. Discontinuation of therapy
D. Addition of prednisone
Answer: B
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, often
prevented or treated with vitamin B6.
5. A client with COPD is on prednisone. Which instruction is
appropriate?
A. Stop taking it once symptoms resolve
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Report black tarry stools
D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Answer: C
Rationale: Corticosteroids increase the risk for GI bleeding and
ulcers. Tarry stools may indicate bleeding.
6. A nurse is caring for a client on glipizide. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.
7. A client with herpes simplex is prescribed acyclovir. What is the
most important teaching?
A. "Take on an empty stomach."
, B. "Drink plenty of fluids."
C. "Discontinue when symptoms improve."
D. "Expect yellowing of the eyes."
Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity. Hydration is
essential to reduce the risk.
8. Which statement indicates proper understanding of
enoxaparin (Lovenox) administration?
A. “I will inject it into my thigh muscle.”
B. “I will rub the site after injection.”
C. “I will inject it into my belly fat.”
D. “I must monitor my INR daily.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously, preferably in the
abdomen, and INR monitoring is not required.
9. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums. What
should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect. Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
10. A client is prescribed bupropion for smoking cessation. Which
side effect is most serious?
A. Dry mouth
B. Insomnia
C. Seizures
D. Weight loss
