FISDAP EMT CARDIOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | LATEST ALREADY
GRADED A+ UPDATE 2025|2026!! CARDIOLOGY FISDAP EXAM FOR EMT/GRADE
A+ ASSURED.
Question 1
Which intervention or combination of interventions has been shown to have the MOST positive
impact on the survival and clinical outcome of a patient in cardiac arrest?
A) Immediate transport to a trauma center
B) High-flow oxygen and insertion of an advanced airway
C) Early CPR and rapid defibrillation
D) Administration of IV fluids and epinephrine
E) Immediate pharmacological intervention by ALS
Correct Answer: C) Early CPR and rapid defibrillation
Rationale: In the chain of survival, the two most critical factors in determining the survival
of a patient in cardiac arrest are high-quality chest compressions (CPR) and early
defibrillation. CPR maintains a minimum level of perfusion to the vital organs (brain and
heart), while defibrillation is the only definitive treatment for shockable rhythms like
Ventricular Fibrillation (V-Fib) or Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tach). Delays in
either of these interventions significantly decrease the likelihood of a Return of
Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC).
Question 2
You are treating a patient in cardiac arrest. After the AED analyzes the rhythm, it provides a "No
Shock Advised" message. What is your immediate next step?
A) Check for a carotid pulse for 10 seconds
B) Provide two rescue breaths
C) Resume chest compressions immediately
D) Re-analyze the rhythm to confirm the message
E) Prepare the patient for immediate transport
Correct Answer: C) Resume chest compressions
Rationale: A "No Shock Advised" message means the AED has detected a non-shockable
rhythm, such as Asystole or Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA). It does not mean the
patient has a pulse. To maintain perfusion, you must immediately resume high-quality
, 2
chest compressions for 2 minutes (5 cycles) before the AED prompts another analysis.
Minimizing pauses in compressions is vital for patient survival.
Question 3
What is the maximum amount of time an EMT should spend checking for spontaneous breathing
and a pulse in an unresponsive child?
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds
E) 30 seconds
Correct Answer: B) 10 seconds
Rationale: According to AHA and FISDAP guidelines, the assessment of breathing and
pulse should occur simultaneously and take no longer than 10 seconds. If you cannot
definitively feel a pulse or see normal breathing within that window, you must begin CPR.
Spending too much time on the assessment delays life-saving compressions.
Question 4
When performing CPR on an adult patient, what is the required compression depth and rate to
ensure adequate perfusion?
A) 1.0–1.5 inches at a rate of 80–100 BPM
B) 1.5–2.0 inches at a rate of 100–120 BPM
C) 2.0–2.4 inches at a rate of 100–150 BPM
D) 2.5–3.0 inches at a rate of 120–160 BPM
E) At least 2 inches at a rate of exactly 100 BPM
Correct Answer: C) 2.0-2.4 in, 100-150BPM
Rationale: High-quality CPR requires sufficient depth to physically squeeze the heart
against the spine to eject blood, and a sufficient rate to maintain coronary perfusion
pressure. While standard AHA guidelines often cite 100-120 BPM, FISDAP testing
parameters often utilize a broader range (100-150) to emphasize the avoidance of slow
GRADED A+ UPDATE 2025|2026!! CARDIOLOGY FISDAP EXAM FOR EMT/GRADE
A+ ASSURED.
Question 1
Which intervention or combination of interventions has been shown to have the MOST positive
impact on the survival and clinical outcome of a patient in cardiac arrest?
A) Immediate transport to a trauma center
B) High-flow oxygen and insertion of an advanced airway
C) Early CPR and rapid defibrillation
D) Administration of IV fluids and epinephrine
E) Immediate pharmacological intervention by ALS
Correct Answer: C) Early CPR and rapid defibrillation
Rationale: In the chain of survival, the two most critical factors in determining the survival
of a patient in cardiac arrest are high-quality chest compressions (CPR) and early
defibrillation. CPR maintains a minimum level of perfusion to the vital organs (brain and
heart), while defibrillation is the only definitive treatment for shockable rhythms like
Ventricular Fibrillation (V-Fib) or Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tach). Delays in
either of these interventions significantly decrease the likelihood of a Return of
Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC).
Question 2
You are treating a patient in cardiac arrest. After the AED analyzes the rhythm, it provides a "No
Shock Advised" message. What is your immediate next step?
A) Check for a carotid pulse for 10 seconds
B) Provide two rescue breaths
C) Resume chest compressions immediately
D) Re-analyze the rhythm to confirm the message
E) Prepare the patient for immediate transport
Correct Answer: C) Resume chest compressions
Rationale: A "No Shock Advised" message means the AED has detected a non-shockable
rhythm, such as Asystole or Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA). It does not mean the
patient has a pulse. To maintain perfusion, you must immediately resume high-quality
, 2
chest compressions for 2 minutes (5 cycles) before the AED prompts another analysis.
Minimizing pauses in compressions is vital for patient survival.
Question 3
What is the maximum amount of time an EMT should spend checking for spontaneous breathing
and a pulse in an unresponsive child?
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds
E) 30 seconds
Correct Answer: B) 10 seconds
Rationale: According to AHA and FISDAP guidelines, the assessment of breathing and
pulse should occur simultaneously and take no longer than 10 seconds. If you cannot
definitively feel a pulse or see normal breathing within that window, you must begin CPR.
Spending too much time on the assessment delays life-saving compressions.
Question 4
When performing CPR on an adult patient, what is the required compression depth and rate to
ensure adequate perfusion?
A) 1.0–1.5 inches at a rate of 80–100 BPM
B) 1.5–2.0 inches at a rate of 100–120 BPM
C) 2.0–2.4 inches at a rate of 100–150 BPM
D) 2.5–3.0 inches at a rate of 120–160 BPM
E) At least 2 inches at a rate of exactly 100 BPM
Correct Answer: C) 2.0-2.4 in, 100-150BPM
Rationale: High-quality CPR requires sufficient depth to physically squeeze the heart
against the spine to eject blood, and a sufficient rate to maintain coronary perfusion
pressure. While standard AHA guidelines often cite 100-120 BPM, FISDAP testing
parameters often utilize a broader range (100-150) to emphasize the avoidance of slow
